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Microsoft 98-367 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You have a new computer and want to restrict other people from replacing the operating system.
Which action prevents a user from installing an alternate operating system by using physical media if the user has
physical media if the user has physical access to the computer?
A. installing drive-level encryption
B. disabling removable devices and drives
C. password protecting the computer BIOS
D. removing the user from the administrators group
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a/an:
A. Intrusion Prevention System that filters unauthorized communications in the enterprise network
B. virtual communication method that stores data transmitted in a private environment
C. tunnel that prevents information that passes through it from being modified or stolen
D. perimeter network that contains secure virtual servers
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections?
A. VPN
B. NTFS
C. RADIUS
D. Single Sign-On
Correct Answer: C
RADIUS is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. RADIUS is a client/server
protocol that runs in the application layer, using UDP as transport. The Remote Access Server, the Virtual Private
Network server, the Network switch with port-based authentication, and the Network Access Server are all gateways
that control access to the network, and all have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS
server. The RADIUS server is usually a background process running on a UNIX or Windows NT machine. RADIUS
serves three functions: To authenticate users or devices before granting them access to a network To authorize those
users or devices for certain network services To account for usage of those services Answer: D is incorrect. Single SignOn is an approach which involves a server that acts as an online certificate authority within a single sign-on system. A
single sign-on server will issue digital certificates into the client system, but never stores them. Users can execute
programs, etc. with the temporary certificate. It is common to find this solution variety with x.509-based certificates.
Answer: B is incorrect. NTFS is a high-performance file system proprietary to Microsoft. NTFS supports file-level
security, compression, and auditing. It also supports large volumes and powerful storage solution such as RAID. The
latest feature of NTFS is its ability to encrypt files and folders to protect sensitive data. Answer: A is incorrect. A virtual
private network (VPN) is a form of wide area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long
physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the
Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization\\’s network. A virtual
private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one
organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost. A
VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and
tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the
sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is
not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data, but also the originating and
receiving network addresses.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following contains a tree of domain names?
A. Domain name space
B. Domain name formulation
C. Domain Name System
D. Authoritative name server
Correct Answer: A
Domain name space consists of a tree of domain names. Each node or leaf in the tree has zero or more resource
records, which hold information associated with the domain name. The tree sub- divides into zones starting at the root
zone.
Answer: B is incorrect. The definitive descriptions of the rules for forming domain names appear in RFC 1035, RFC
1123, and RFC 2181. A domain name consists of one or more parts, technically called labels that are conventionally
concatenated, and delimited by dots.
Answer: C is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) is a distributed hierarchical naming system for computers,
services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. It associates various information with
domain names
assigned to each of the participants.
Answer: D is incorrect. An authoritative name server is a name server that gives answers that have been configured by
an original source, for example, the domain administrator or by dynamic DNS methods, in contrast to the answers that
were obtained via a regular DNS query to one more name server. An authoritative-only name server only returns
answers to the queries about domain names that have been specifically configured by the administrator.


QUESTION 5
Which of the following viruses cannot be detected by the signature-based antivirus?
A. Polymorphic
B. MBR virus
C. Boot sector
D. Macro
Correct Answer: A
A polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. This virus is very complicated
and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file in the disk, it loads the virus into the RAM. The new virus starts
making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. The mutation engine of the polymorphic virus
generates a new encrypted code, thus changing the signature of the virus. Therefore, polymorphic viruses cannot be
detected by signature-based antivirus. Answer: B is incorrect. A Master boot record (MBR) virus replaces the boot
sector data with its own malicious code. Every time when the computer starts up, the boot sector virus executes. It can
then generate activity that is either annoying (system will play sounds at certain times) or destructive (erase the hard
drive of the system). Because the code in the Master Boot Record executes before any operating system is started, no
operating system can detect or recover from corruption of the Master Boot Record.
Answer: D is incorrect. A macro virus is a virus that consists of a macro code which infects the system. A Macro virus
can infect a system rapidly. Since this virus has VB event handlers, it is dynamic in nature and displays random
activation. The victim has only to open a file having a macro virus in order to infect the system with the virus. DMV,
Nuclear, and Word Concept are some good examples of macro viruses. Answer: C is incorrect. A boot sector virus
infects the master boot files of the hard disk or floppy disk. Boot record programs are responsible for booting the
operating system and the boot sector virus copies these programs into another part of the hard disk or overwrites these
files. Therefore, when the floppy or the hard disk boots, the virus infects the computer.

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are related to the
operating system and installed software?
A. DNS dynamic update
B. Windows Software Update Services
C. Read-Only domain controller (RODC)
D. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
Correct Answer: D
Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are
related to the operating system and installed software Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a software tool of
Microsoft to determine security state by assessing missing security updates and less- secure security settings within
Microsoft Windows, Windows components such as Internet Explorer, IIS web server, and products Microsoft SQL
Server,
and Microsoft Office macro settings. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) includes a graphical and command
line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems.
Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an add- on component of Windows Server 2008. It
provides functionality to a server to run as a Windows Update server in a Windows network environment.
Administrators
can configure a WSUS server as the only server to download updates from Windows site, and configure other
computers on the network to use the server as the source of update files. This will save lots of bandwidth as each
computer will not
download updates individually. WSUS 3.0 SP1 is the only version of WSUS that can be installed on Windows Server
2008. Earlier versions of WSUS cannot be installed on a server running Windows Server 2008.
Answer: C is incorrect. Read-only Domain Controller (RODC) is a domain controller that hosts the read-only partition of
the Active Directory database. RODC was developed by Microsoft typically to be deployed in a branch office
environment.
RODC is a good option to enhance security by placing it in a location where physical security is poor. RODC can also
be placed at locations having relatively few users and a poor network bandwidth to the main site. As only the read-only
partition of the Active Directory database is hosted by RODC, a little local IT knowledge is required to maintain it.
Answer: A is incorrect. DNS dynamic update is used to enable DNS client computers for registering and dynamically
updating their resource records with a DNS server whenever any modification or change has been taken place. It is
used to
update the DNS client computers with the reflecting changes.

 

QUESTION 7
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. You plan to
connect your company\\’s LAN to the Internet. You are concerned about the security of your network and want to protect
it against external access and misuse. Which device will you install between your LAN and the Internet to accomplish
this?
Select and Place:microsoft 98-367 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft 98-367 exam questions q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
What are three examples of factors required for multi-factor authentication? (Choose three.)
A. a username
B. a smart card
C. a fingerprint
D. a password challenge question
E. a pin number
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-authentication-methods

 

QUESTION 9
Physically securing servers prevents:
A. Theft
B. Compromise of the certificate chain
C. Man-in-the middle attacks
D. Denial of Service attacks
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following actions should be taken so that the computer requires confirmation before installing an ActiveX
component?
A. Configuring a firewall on the network
B. Configuring the settings on the Web Browser
C. Installing an anti-virus software
D. Configuring DMZ on the network
Correct Answer: B
Configuring the settings on the Web browser will enable a computer to ask for confirmation before installing an ActiveX
component. This will enable users to prevent the download of potentially unsafe controls onto the computer. ActiveX
controls are software components that can be integrated into Web pages and applications, within a computer or among
computers in a network, to reuse the functionality. Reusability of controls reduces development time of applications and
improves program interfaces.
They enhance the Web pages with formatting features and animation. ActiveX controls can be used in applications
written in different programming languages that recognize Microsoft\\’s Component Object Model (COM). These
controls
always run in a container. ActiveX controls simplify and automate the authoring tasks, display data, and add functionality
to Web pages.
Answer: A and D are incorrect. Configuring a firewall or DMZ will not help in accomplishing the task.


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a set of rules that control the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Access control list
C. Group Policy
D. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: C
Group Policy is a feature of the Microsoft Windows NT family of operating systems. It is a set of rules, which control the
working environment of user accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy provides the centralized management and
configuration of operating systems, applications, and users\\’ settings in an Active Directory environment. Group Policy
is often used to restrict certain actions that may pose potential security risks. For example, block access to the Task
Manager, restrict access to certain folders, disable the downloading of executable files, and so on. As part of
Microsoft\\’s IntelliMirror technologies, Group Policy aims to reduce the cost of supporting users. IntelliMirror
technologies relate to the management of disconnected machines or roaming users and include roaming user profiles,
folde redirection, and offline files.microsoft 98-367 exam questions q11

Answer: A is incorrect. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for
an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through
authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an
object that is marked as “secret”, he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the
appropriate permission. Answer: D is incorrect. An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is used to detect unauthorized
attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet. It can detect several
types of attacks and malicious behaviors that can compromise the security of a network and computers. This includes
network attacks against vulnerable services, unauthorized logins, and access to sensitive data, and malware (e.g.
viruses, worms, etc.). An IDS also detects attacks that originate from within a system. In most cases, an IDS has three
main components: Sensors, Console, and Engine. Sensors generate security events. A console is used to alert and
control sensors and to monitor events. An engine is used to record events and to generate security alerts based on
received security events. In many IDS implementations, these three components are combined into a single device.
Basically, the following two types of IDS are used: Network-based IDS Host-based IDS Answer: B is incorrect. Access
control list (ACL) is a rule list containing access control entries. It is used to allow or deny access to network resources.
ACL can be implemented on network users and network devices such as routers and firewalls. Routers and firewalls
use ACL to determine which packets should be forwarded or dropped.

 

QUESTION 12
Humongous Insurance needs to set up a domain controller in a branch office. Unfortunately, the server cannot be
sufficiently secured from access by employees in that office, so the company is installing a Primary Domain Controller.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Backup Domain Controller
C. Active Directory Server
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Your supervisor asks you to review file permission settings on the application.bat file. You need to report which file
system the file is on and the type of permission the file has. You review the application Properties dialog box shown in
the following image:

microsoft 98-367 exam questions q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft 98-367 exam questions q13-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft 98-367 exam questions q13-2


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The latest updated Microsoft 98-367 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Practice Test is free to share from Lead4Pass (Q1-Q12)

QUESTION 1
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 98-367 practice test q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-367 practice test q1-1

 

 

QUESTION 2
Role separation improves server security by:
A. Enforcing principle of least privilege.
B. Installing applications on separate hard disks.
C. Physically separating high-security servers from other servers.
D. Placing servers on separate VLANs.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Mark works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Mark is facing a
series of problems with email spam and identifying theft via phishing scams. He wants to implement the various security
measures and to provide some education because it is related to the best practices while using email. Which of the
following will Mark ask employees of his company to do when they receive an email from a company they know with a
request to click the link to “verify their account information”?
A. Provide the required information
B. Hide the email
C. Use Read-only Domain Controller
D. Delete the email
Correct Answer: D
In the above scenario, Mark will ask his employees to delete the email whenever he receives an email from a company
that they know with to click the link to “verify their account information”, because companies do not ask for account
information via email nowadays.
Answer: C is incorrect. Read-only Domain Controller (RODC) is a domain controller that hosts the read-only partition of
the Active Directory database. RODC was developed by Microsoft typically to be deployed in a branch office
environment.
RODC is a good option to enhance security by placing it in a location where physical security is poor. RODC can also
be placed at locations having relatively few users and poor network bandwidth to the main site. As only the read-only
partition of the Active Directory database is hosted by RODC, a little local IT knowledge is required to maintain it.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections?
A. VPN
B. NTFS
C. RADIUS
D. Single Sign-On
Correct Answer: C
RADIUS is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. RADIUS is a client/server
protocol that runs in the application layer, using UDP as transport. The Remote Access Server, the Virtual Private Network server, the Network switch with port-based authentication, and the Network Access Server are all gateways
that control access to the network, and all have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS
server. The RADIUS server is usually a background process running on a UNIX or Windows NT machine. RADIUS
serves three functions: To authenticate users or devices before granting them access to a network To authorize those
users or devices for certain network services To account for the usage of those services Answer: D is incorrect. Single sign-on is an approach that involves a server that acts as an online certificate authority within a single-sign-on system. A
single sign-on server will issue digital certificates into the client system, but never stores them. Users can execute
programs, etc. with the temporary certificate. It is common to find this solution variety with x.509-based certificates.
Answer: B is incorrect. NTFS is a high-performance file system proprietary to Microsoft. NTFS supports file-level
security, compression, and auditing. It also supports large volumes and powerful storage solutions such as RAID. The
latest feature of NTFS is its ability to encrypt files and folders to protect sensitive data. Answer: A is incorrect. A virtual
private network (VPN) is a form of wide-area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long
physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the
Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization\\’s network. A virtual
private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one
organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities but at a much lower cost. A
VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and
tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the
sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is
not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data but also the originating and
receiving network addresses.

 

QUESTION 5
By default, what level of security is set for the Local intranet zone?
A. High-Medium
B. Medium-Low
C. High
D. Low
Correct Answer: B
The default security level of the Local intranet zone is Medium-Low. Internet Explorer (IE) allows configuring different
levels of security for different types of Web sites by segmenting them into the following security zone:
Local Intranet: IE can be configured to detect intranet sites automatically. Users can add Web sites to this zone through
Local Intranet sites dialog box. Protected Mode is not enabled for sites in this zone. The default security level of this
zone
is Medium-Low.
Trusted Sites: Putting sites in the Trusted Sites zone often provide elevated privileges. The default security level for this
zone is Medium. Restricted Sites: Potentially malicious sites are put in this zone. The default security level for this zone
is
High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone. Internet: The sites that are not contained in other
zones are automatically hosted in this zone. Sites in this zone are blocked from viewing private data from other Web. The default security level of this zone is Medium-High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone.
The three default security levels are Medium, Medium-High, and High.

 

QUESTION 6
You work as a Network Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. After completing a
security audit of the company\\’s Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 file servers, you have determined that folder and
share security requires a revision on the basis of a corporate reorganization. You have noticed that some shares on the
file system are not secured. Which of the following is a feature that you will use to reassign permissions without
assigning permissions to every parent and child folder?
A. Inheritance
B. Kerberos
C. TCP/IP protocol
D. User Account Control (UAC)
Correct Answer: A
Inheritance is defined as the concept of permissions that are propagated to an object from a parent object. It is found in
both file system permissions and Active Directory permissions and does not work with share permissions. It is used to
reassign permissions without assigning permissions to every parent and child folder Answer: B is incorrect. Kerberos is
defined as a secure method used for authenticating a request for a service in a computer network. Answer: D is
incorrect. User Account Control (UAC) is used to prevent unauthorized changes to computers on the domain. Answer: C
is incorrect. TCP/IP protocol is used to define the rules computers are required to follow for communicating with each
other over the internet.

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is often used for one-to-many communications using broadcast or multicast IP datagrams?
A. UDP
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A
UDP is often used for one-to-many communications, using broadcast or multicast IP datagrams. User Datagram
Protocol (UDP) is one of the core members of the Internet Protocol Suite, the set of network protocols used for the
Internet. With UDP, computer applications can send messages, in this case, referred to as datagrams, to other hosts on
an Internet Protocol (IP) network without requiring prior communications to set up special transmission channels or data
paths. UDP is sometimes called the Universal Datagram Protocol. Answer: D is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. E-mailing systems use this protocol to send mails
over the Internet. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically
initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for
SMTP, port number 25. However, e-mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. Answer: B is
incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard network protocol used to copy a file from one host to another over a
TCP/IP-based network, such as the Internet. FTP is built on a client-server architecture and utilizes separate control
and data connections between the client and server applications, which solves the problem of different end-host
configurations (i.e., Operating System, file names). FTP is used with user-based password authentication or with
anonymous user access. Answer: C is incorrect. The HyperText Transfer Protocol is a standard application-level protocol used to request and transmit files, especially web pages and webpage components, on the World Wide Web.
HTTP runs on top of the TCP/IP protocol. Web browsers are HTTP clients that send file requests to Web Servers, which
in turn handle the requests via an HTTP service.

 

QUESTION 8
A malicious user who intercepts and modifies communications is known as a:
A. red hat hacker
B. white hat hacker
C. network sniffer
D. man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the process used by attackers for listening to the network traffic?
A. Eavesdropping
B. Subnetting
C. Sanitization
D. Hacking
Correct Answer: A
Eavesdropping is the process of listening to private conversations. It also includes attackers listening to the network traffic.
For example, it can be done over telephone lines (wiretapping), email, instant messaging, and any other method of
communication considered private.
Answer: C is incorrect. Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive information from a document or other medium
so that it may be distributed to a broader audience. When dealing with classified information, sanitization attempts to
reduce the document\\’s classification level, possibly yielding an unclassified document. Originally, the term sanitization
was applied to printed documents; it has since been extended to apply to computer media and the problem of data
remanence as well.
Answer: D is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network.
Answer: B is incorrect. Subnetting is a process through which an IP address network is divided into smaller networks. It
is a hierarchical partitioning of the network address space of an organization into several subnets. Subnetting creates
smaller broadcast domains. It helps in the better utilization of the bits in the Host ID.

 

QUESTION 10
You manage 50 Windows workstations in a computer lab. All workstations belong to the lab Active Directory domain.
You need to implement several audit policies on each workstation in the shortest time possible.
What should you do?
A. Enable logging on each computer
B. Create a domain Group Policy
C. Turn on the Audit Policy on the domain controller
D. Enable Audit object access
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/branchcache/deploy/use-group-policy-to-configure-domainmember-client-computers

 

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Malware is any kind of unwanted software that is installed without your consent.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. Trojans are
B. Worms are
C. Viruses are
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 98-367 practice test q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-367 practice test q12-1


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