[2018 New Cisco Questions] Latest Cisco Specialist 700-260 Dumps Exam Training Resources Youtube Free Shared (Q1-Q40)

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2018 new Cisco Specialist 700-260 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco Specialist 700-260 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager” is the name of Cisco Specialist https://www.lead4pass.com/700-260.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco Specialist 700-260 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Specialist
Exam Name: Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager
Exam Code: 700-260
Total Questions: 110 Q&As

New Cisco Specialist 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
Which three features, most related to the “Advanced Protection” use case, are designed to reduce vulnerabilities while keeping the existing security investment? (Choose three.)
A. advanced content filters
B. scalable data center platforms
C. intrusion protection
D. customer choice
E. file retrospection
F. cloud storage capabilities
G. flexible deployment options
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Which three features do customers receive with smart licensing? (Choose three.)
A. PAK registration
B. company specific licensing
C. easy registration
D. manual registration
E. a complete view of software, services, and devices
F. products that have to be continually adjusted
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 3
According to recent studies, which percentage of global companies have experienced a security breach?
A. 5%
B. 75%
C. 0%
D. 33%
E. 100%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the five integrated technology solutions deals with application-centric infrastructures?
A. unified access
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
D. Cisco Secure Data Center
E. security as a service
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco business value is represented by features of increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Why do partners often have a hard time selling their new security solutions to customers?
A. Customers boast completely secure environments.
B. Customers have antiquated solutions.
C. Customers have overcrowded portfolios of security solutions from multiple vendors
D. Customers show a lack of concern over malware and threats.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
700-260 dumps How can sellers help customers during the adopt phase of the software lifecycle?
A. Anticipate future requirements and prepare accordingly.
B. Help customers manage their assets.
C. Develop an activation strategy and development plan.
D. Assist customers to become comfortable with their new software.
E. Identify new opportunities for services.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Why do companies need quick-scalable secure data center visualization and cloud technology?
A. Provisioning time for data centers has decreased from 8 weeks to 15 minutes.
B. Competitors are gaining a 33% market share.
C. Staff cannot keep up with newer data center technology.
D. Administrators are allowing a growing number of BYOD devices.
E. Management is expected to decrease IT budgets by 25%.
F. 56% of employees who leave take private information with them.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The fact that Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. Scalability
B. Time-to-value
C. Protection
D. Control
E. Flexibility
F. Agility
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which response is correct if a customer wants to know how the Cisco Secure Access solution manages a changing user base in a growing company?
A. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing products that integrate together, lowering the cost of IT setup, management, and maintenance.
B. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs.
C. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations integrate all security solutions, providing advanced protection against new threats.
D. Cisco provides the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex. Cisco provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the applications.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options are Cisco policy and access solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. email security
D. web security
E. Next-Generation Firewall
F. Advanced Malware Protection for endpoints
G. identity and access control
H. remote access VPN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Leveraging current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoiding lengthy customizations are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Faster integration
C. Flexible licensing
D. Fewer resources to manage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Security gaps
B. Lack of firewall
C. Pieced together
D. Missing components
E. Fragmented solutions
F. Lack of management solutions
G. Lack of cloud solution
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which option would be a primary security concern of a large, growing corporation that is trying to scale its data center growth with its growing business in the secure data center use case?
A. Inexperienced IT staff
B. Lack of scalable and flexible security options
C. No employee remote access
D. Lack of device variability
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which customer cost saver leverages current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoids lengthy customizations?
A. faster integration
B. fewer resources to manage
C. flexible licensing
D. less time scoping a breach
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which three options are Cisco Advanced Threat Solutions? 700-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. malware protection
B. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. identity and access control
D. cyber threat defense
E. web security
F. remote access VPN
G. network analytics
Correct Answer: CDG

QUESTION 18
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which Cisco value is demonstrated by the fact that Cisco advanced threat solutions block emerging and persisting threats quickly?
A. protection
B. control
C. agility
D. time-to-value
E. flexibility
F. scalability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which option would be the primary concern of a CIO who is focused on advanced protection in the advanced protection use case?
A. Integrate solutions seamlessly
B. Onboard devices quickly
C. Expand into new markets
D. Reduce vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
According to recent studies, what percentage of global companies has experienced a security breach?
A. 100 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 33 percent
D. 5 percent
E. 0 percent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which customer cost saver provides centralized management and automatic updates?
A. fewer resources to manage
B. less time scoping a breach
C. faster integration
D. flexible licensing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Centralized management and automatic updates are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Faster integration
B. Flexible licensing
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Less time scoping a breach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which feature of web security offers customers threat protection before an attack?
A. file retrospection
B. response and remediation
C. URL filtering
D. file sandboxing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which feature of Cisco award-winning resources and support allows partners to create a unique relationship with customers?
A. Be the first to receive new innovations.
B. Access 24-hour support around the world.
C. Earn higher margins on each deal sold.
D. Take advantage of incentives programs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco business value is represented by features of scalable solutions and network adaptability?
A. protection
B. flexibility
C. control
D. completeness
E. cost effectiveness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two options are business-use trends that have surfaced in the last five years, prompting a need for nontraditional security methods? 700-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Substantial number of remote employees
B. Third-party applications
C. Partial URL and application blocking
D. BYOD
E. Wi-Fi connections
F. Web and email attacks
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 29
Which component of NGFW and NGIPS security is updated after an attack to help prevent threats before they encounter the network next time?
A. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group
B. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. site-to-site VPN
D. identity and access control
E. Cisco Next-Generation Firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
In the “Advanced Protection” use case: at which stage of the threat continuum does a challenge due to inconsistent threat containment tools occur?
A. during
B. before
C. along the entire attack continuum
D. after
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which three options are Cisco Secure Access Control Server solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco Advanced Matware Protection
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
H. Cisco Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: CGH

QUESTION 32
Cutting IT administrative costs and leveraging current hardware are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Cisco web and email security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. Of which Cisco value is this fact a prime example?
A. time-to-value
B. scalability
C. flexibility
D. agility
E. control
F. protection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which three options must a customer look for when choosing a security solution provider? (Choose three.)
A. delivers better partner and customer support
B. offers more than just niche products
C. is committed to security
D. generates higher margins on each sale
E. provides solutions at the lowest cost
F. prioritizes one security solution above all else
G. creates new market opportunities
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 35
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits for selling Cisco Security Solutions? (Choose two.)
A. lower total cost of ownership
B. simplified solutions
C. partner referrals
D. opportunities for new revenue
E. incentives programs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 37
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years that require nontraditional security? 700-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Wi-Fi connections
B. web and email attacks
C. third-party applications
D. partial URL/application blocking
E. substantial number of remote employees
F. BYOD
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 38
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Scalable solutions and network adaptability are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Flexibility
C. Control
D. Protection
E. Cost effectiveness
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which is a prime example of a Cisco differentiator as Cisco leads the industry in email/web security, network access: and is the number one market share in network security?
A. best-in-class technologies
B. lowest price points
C. comprehensive vision for security
D. unparalleled commitment
E. one solution to fit every need
Correct Answer: A

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Newest Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 Dumps Exam Verified Answers Youtube (Q1-Q20)

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2018 new Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer” is the name of Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge https://www.lead4pass.com/700-039.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer
Exam Code: 700-039
Total Questions: 60 Q&As

New Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which three statements are reasons why customers consider Cisco as their collaboration solutions partner? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is built on open standards and stands for collaboration interoperability.
B. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is exclusive to software rather than hardware solutions.
C. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is creatively designed with a single solution model that fits all customer choices.
D. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings in the market.
E. Cisco is the market leader with the best-in-class telephony, conferencing, and video solutions.
F. The Cisco comprehensive and flexible collaboration portfolio is lowest-priced option when compared to competitors
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and verticaloriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat. How secure is your Collaboration application?
B. I’m concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems’?
D. I’m concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented? 700-039 dumps
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)
A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-tomarket time for innovative products globally
C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics are differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
B. Integration of WLAN access points
C. Routes network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
D. Support of analog voice connections
E. Operational simplicity through a single, universal Cisco IOS Software image. Services Ready Engine,
EnergyWise innovations, and investment protection
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Which two options apply when you have a meeting with the telecommunications manager of an organization? (Choose two.)
A. The telecommunications manager is concerned about how collaboration affects network management
B. The telecommunications manager is exclusively concerned with day-to-day issues, such as reporting, security, reliability, training, and processes.
C. The telecommunications manager could be resistant because the IT department gets authority over the new system.
D. The telecommunications manager’s major concern is the cost of the solution
E. The telecommunications manager may have a long-standing relationship with a PBX competitor
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager’s concerns? (Choose three)
A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular
D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.
F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.
B. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.
C. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.
D. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.
E. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.
F. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 14
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
B. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Faster more successful deployments
E. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
The Finance manager of an organization is concerned about switching their existing PBX to IP. Which response describes the value of the Collaboration Architecture?
A. Cisco and Cisco Partners have vast experience in smooth migration scenarios. Deployment has no risks
B. Collaboration Architecture is much more than just IP telephony. A fully-deployed solution optimizes business processes and enhances customer satisfaction.
C. Our competitors are sticking to PBX solution and are losing market share Collaboration is a risk-free approach.
D. Our solutions create a satisfied workforce, which results in higher productivity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. Supply chain agility
B. Customer experience transformation
C. Customer intimacy
D. Increase employee productivity
E. Collaborative customer experience
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the last step when mapping business requirements with Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. Map business model elements with the value chain.
B. Map important technical KPIs with customer process flow.
C. Map collaboration maps (diagrams) with Cisco Collaboration Architecture
D. Map process flow tasks with the collaboration map
E. Map value chain and value network with Cisco Collaboration Architecture applications
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which digital signaling is correctly mapped to its functionality?
A. T1 PRI NFAS – Used to connect to the PSTN where caller ID is required and PRI is not an option
B. T1 CAS – Used widely in North America to connect to the PSTN or PBXs
C. T1 FGD – Uses a single D channel to control multiple spans of T1s with only B channels option
D. T1 and E1 PRI – Uses the Q Signaling variation of the basic ISDN specification
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement about Cisco WebEx Meeting Center is true? 700-039 dumps
A. It is fully scalable, is delivered entirely over the public internet, and is optimized for security, performance, and reliability.
B. It is powered by Jabber XMPP and can be used for one-on-one or group chat and File transfers.
C. It is an award-winning flagship product that simulates a traditional live meeting in an online environment.
D. It displays life-size, remarkably clear video images, which provide a “face-to-face” meeting with remote customers, suppliers, and partners.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three)
A. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.
B. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.
C. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis.
D. It is available in Professional, Standard, and Entry Editions.
E. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses
Correct Answer: ABE

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Newest helpful Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated latest Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge https://www.lead4pass.com/700-039.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 700-039 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge. Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-039 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary 700-039 questions that you need to know.

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2018 new Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-038 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-038 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Advanced Collaboration Architecture Field Engineer Exam” is the name of Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge https://www.lead4pass.com/700-038.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-038 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: Advanced Collaboration Architecture Field Engineer Exam
Exam Code: 700-038
Total Questions: 50 Q&As

New Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-038 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which sequence of steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value. Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect? 700-038 dumps
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Cisco Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
The three-phased approach of preparation, discovery, and proposal is used to deliver true business and technology alignment. Which option belongs to the discovery phase?
A. services offering and incentives
B. network architecture vision workshop
C. 360 health check
D. architecture roadmap creation and presentation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT executives? (Choose two)
A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Many tasks in an organization’s processes require collaboration. Which two options will you need from the customer to evaluate the relevance and to properly position Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. employee titles of people who are required to perform designated tasks
B. department titles of people who will perform these tasks
C. available network bandwidth between core processes departments
D. type of information to be shared between involved parties
E. importance and type of interaction between involved parties
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s organizational chart.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two tools and resources can most efficiently help you to shorten the time to prepare the BOM? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration Architecture Validated Designs
B. Cisco Collaboration Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Collaboration Architecture resources on PEC
D. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing tool
E. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Vertical-oriented support tools are important when positioning Cisco Collaboration Architecture into a specific industry. 700-038 dumps Where can you find resources that help you address verticals?
A. Cisco Learning Store
B. Cisco Partner Central, under Sell & Market Cisco
C. Cisco’s Steps to Success
D. Cisco Partner Education Connection, under Collaboration Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 21
Which process makes use of the Cisco Installed Base Lifecycle Management (IBLM) initiative and transformative network approach?
A. a high-level approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
B. a high-level approach in understanding the customer business model
C. a detailed approach in understanding the customer business model
D. a detailed approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
B. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. revenue streams
B. key partners
C. key resources
D. channels
E. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Retail businesses must act quickly in order to innovate, respond to changing market conditions, enhance customer service, and increase sales. Which option addresses this requirement?
A. Cisco Lean Retail
B. Cisco Connected Retail
C. Cisco Employee Optimization
D. Cisco Customer Experience Transformation
E. Cisco Secure Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco Telepresence product series exemplifies simple-to-use immersive collaboration?
A. TX Series
B. MX Series
C. Profile Series
D. EX Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help lo build BOM faster”? (Choose two.)
A. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
B. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer’s business.
C. They help to verify any BOM that is created.
D. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which activity belongs to mapping business requirements to Cisco Collaboration Architecture? 700-038 dumps
A. developing the high-level and detailed customer designs
B. applying the requirement to the Cisco architecture reference model
C. identifying items from the architecture that would be used, such as switches and routers
D. building the customer design
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which sequence of steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Correct Answer: A

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] High Quality Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 Dumps Exam Files Youtube Free Shared (Q1-Q30)

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2018 new Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies” is the name of Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/640-916.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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640-916 dumps
Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Exam Code: 640-916
Total Questions: 182 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
An engineer has been asked to configure the Nexus 1000v for a ESXi Cluster. What component of the Nexus 1000v needs to be installed on the hosts?
A. VSG
B. VEM
C. vShield
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
Customer is configuring FCoE and NPV in their Data Center on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches. 640-916 dumps Please go through the Topology and Exhibit 1 through 4 to answer the following questions.
Topology:
640-916 dumps
640-916 dumps
640-916
What can you tell about server ports and their external interfaces from the exhibits?
A. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1.
B. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1 and flogi are unsuccessful.
C. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1,fc2/2, fc2/3, andfc2/4. There are 4 successful flogi.
D. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1, fc2/2, fc2/3, and fc2/4. There are 4 flogi are in initialization state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What option automatically performs an inventory and deep discovery of any subsequently attached equipment, without requiring manual intervention?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture the world wide node name of the host bus adapter. Which command returns the needed information?
A. show flogi database
B. show fcns database
C. show fcs database
D. show wwn status
E. show interface fc 1/20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which SAN port type allows multihop FCoE between two SAN switches?
A. VN
B. VE
C. VF
D. E
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which is the correct port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Cisco MDS Fibre Channel switch?
A. H_Port to N_Port
B. N_Port to S_Port
C. H_Port to S_Port
D. N_Port to F_Port
E. H_Port to F_Port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
In a large enterprise, which two SAN switches are ideal core switches for providing high availability? 640-916 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548
B. Cisco MDS 9710
C. Cisco MDS 9509
D. Cisco Nexus 7028
E. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch. One design requirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. LAN Pin Groups
B. Port-Channels
C. System QoS Policy
D. Unified Ports
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 17
Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?
A. N to F
B. VF to VN
C. VE to VE
D. TE to TE
E. NL to NF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which two switches does Cisco recommend for small and medium-sized organizations to provide a cost-effective solution for the Fibre Channel SAN edge? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9250i
B. Cisco MDS 9506
C. Cisco MDS 9148
D. Cisco MDS 9509
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 20
On the Cisco Nexus 5000, which three commands help verify network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. show interface brief
C. show otv
D. show vdc membership
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 21
Which three items are needed to perform the initial setup for a Cisco Data Center device? (Choose three.)
A. IP address and network mask
B. FTP password
C. Active Directory password
D. console cable
E. device software licenses
F. admin password to assign to the device
G. SFP+ cables
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 22
What are two purposes of VIFs in Data Center Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. VIF can be used to virtually present NICs to the operating system
B. VIF is created when interconnecting Catalyst switches to Nexus switches
C. FEX modules can be connected to Nexus parent switches through VIF
D. VIF can be used to directly attach virtual machines with a Unified Computing System
E. VIF creates multiple switch instances inside a VDC
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host database
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show fcns database
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
640-916 dumps
A customer has connected ports from a Cisco UCS 6296 using factory default settings, in this way:
?Ports 45-48 connected to an upstream Cisco MDS switch
?Ports 16-19 connected to an upstream Cisco Nexus 5596 switch
Which two port modes should be used in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
A. ports 45-48 as Fibre Channel uplink ports
B. ports 16-19 as uplink ports
C. ports 45-48 as Fibre Channel storage ports
D. ports 16-19 as server ports
E. ports 45-48 as FCoE ports
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which is the correct command to install a feature license on Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel Switches? 640-916 dumps
A. MDS-A# install license bootflash:license_file.lic
B. MDS-A# copy license bootflash:license_file.lic running-config
C. MDS-A# install feature bootflash:license_file.lic
D. MDS-A# copy feature bootflash:license_file.lic running-config
E. MDS-A# update license pool bootflash:license_file.lic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which option describes what VNTags are used for?
A. to separate broadcast domains
B. to identify and separate virtual interfaces
C. to prioritize FCoE traffic
D. to extend a Layer 2 domain across a Layer 3 boundary
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. pass-through switching
B. hypervisor controlled
C. native switching
D. channeled uplink
E. store-and-forward switching
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
640-916 dumps
640-916 dumps
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[2018 New Cisco Questions] The Correct Choice for you to Pass Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Youtube Demo (Q1-Q40)

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2018 new Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/640-911.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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640-911 dumps
Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 640-911
Total Questions: 235 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”

QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
640-911 dumps What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
“Originally, each RIP router transmitted full updates every 30 seconds.”

QUESTION 10
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Bits – 1 layer
Packets – 3 layer

QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
640-911 dumps
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. 640-911 dumps After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”

QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
What is the maximum distance for 100Base-TX?
A. 10m
B. 100m
C. 400m
D. 500m
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps

Explanation:
The VTP passwords are set incorrectly.
Use the show VTP password command, one side is set to cisco the other is cisco123.

QUESTION 33
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps

Explanation:
Use the show vlan command to see the number of VLANs configured in the 1006-4094 range.

QUESTION 34
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps
Explanation:
Use the “show interface trunk” to see the VLANs allowed on the E2/11 interface. The 750-760 VLAN ranges are not included.

QUESTION 35
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps
Explanation:
Use the “show spanning tree” command to see which switch is the root for each VLAN.

QUESTION 36
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps
Explanation:
Port-channel 201 is operationally up with one single member.

QUESTION 37
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps
QUESTION 38
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps
QUESTION 39
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps
QUESTION 40
HOTSPOT
640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-911 dumps

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Useful Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching 640-692 Dumps Exam Files Update Youtube Demo (Q7-Q40)

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2018 new Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching 640-692 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching 640-692 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices” is the name of Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching https://www.lead4pass.com/640-692.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching 640-692 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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640-692 dumps
Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Advanced Routing and Switching
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices
Exam Code: 640-692
Total Questions: 92 Q&As

New Cisco Advanced Routing and Switching 640-692 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (7-40)

QUESTION 7
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
640-692 dumps
Which type of cable us used on the ATM card?
A. Fiber-optic BNC
B. Coaxial
C. Serial
D. Crossover
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
640-692 dumps
Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
640-692 dumps Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. copy tftp: flash:
B. copy flash: tftp:
C. tftpdnld
D. xmodem
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
ESD is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two different objects at different electrical potentials caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field.
Which three of the following tools should be used to avoid ESD? (Choose three)
A. ESD wrist strap
B. Latex gloves
C. Antistatic bag
D. Antistatic mat
E. Negative static mat
F. Negative static bag
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 18
Which command indicates the amount of memory (NVRAM, RAM, and flash) in a Cisco device?
A. show diag
B. show environment
C. show inventory
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
B. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
C. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the SSH protocol is used.
D. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
E. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
The colored wires at one end of the cable in the reverse sequence of the colored wires at the other end of the cable.
Which cable does this describe?
A. Rolled
B. Coaxial
C. Crossover
D. Straight-through
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which two of the following are features of NVRAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two)
A. Stores startup configuration
B. Stores running configuration
C. Stores routing tables
D. Stores decompressed IOS software image
E. Erased when device is rebooted
F. Not erased when device is rebooted
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
Which command displays the configuration register setting?
A. show config-register
B. show flash
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Because FTP usually requires authentication, a Cisco router must be configured with the appropriate username and password.
B. FTP uses UDP as its transport protocol.
C. The copy running-config ftp: command is used to copy a configuration file from an FTP server to the running configuration.
D. A router can act as an FTP server.
E. FTP can be used to load Cisco IOS software to router in ROMMON mode.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
From a Windows command prompt, which command displays the local IP address of a computer?
A. ip config
B. ip configuration
C. ipconfig
D. ipconfiguration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to the Console port on a Cisco router?
A. crossover
B. straight-through
C. fiber
D. rollover
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What are two possible causes if an Ethernet interface is up and the line protocol is down? (Choose two)
A. The Ethernet cable might not be attached properly
B. There is a speed or duplex mismatch with the remote device
C. The Ethernet interface has been manually disabled
D. There is a Layer 2 mismatch in the encapsulation type
E. Keepalives are not being received by the local device
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which type of memory is necessary for a router to boot?
A. DRAM
B. PVDM
C. NVRAM
D. VRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two pieces of information can be determined about a neighbor device from the CLI command show cdp neighbor? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. device ID
B. IP address
C. platform
D. uptime
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
Which two modules can be plugged into internal advanced integration module (AIM) slots on a Cisco router? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Private Network Module
B. Intrusion Detection System Module
C. Packet Voice Digital Signal Processor Module
D. LAN Switching Module
E. Voice Interface Module
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which two commands are used to set the configuration register value? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#config-register 0x2102
B. Router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. rommon>confreg 0x2102
E. Router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 31
What are two ways to open a command prompt session on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Click Start > Control Panel > Command Prompt
B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Command Prompt
C. Click Start > All Programs > Command Prompt
D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and click OK
E. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Communications > Command Prompt
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Match the prompt on the left to the operational mode on the right. Not all prompts will be used.
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-692 dumps
QUESTION 33
You are performing a password recovery on a Cisco fixed Catalyst switch. Click and drag the steps on the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-692 dumps
QUESTION 34
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-692 dumps
QUESTION 35
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 37
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. 640-692 dumps
Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 38
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 39
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 40
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
Correct Answer: BD

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Practice Files Youtube Update Free Shared (Q1-Q30)

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2018 new Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

Useful latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. Get your Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam preparation questions in form of 210-060 PDF. Download Cisco CCNA Collaboration real 210-060 dumps exam questions and verified answers. 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 235 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. 210-060 dumps Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation: pressing the button (?) twice in quick succession during an active call.

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Helpful Newest Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Real Answers Youtube Free Demo (Q13-Q40)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 504 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (13-40)

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Planning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? 200-355 dumps (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM. 200-355 dumps
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.
F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. GHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a standards?
A. BPSK
B. CCK
C. DSSS
D. OFDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. operating RF channel
B. SSID names
C. transmit power levels
D. switch port parameters
E. antenna gain
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 36
Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA?
A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information needed to allow client access to network resources.
B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client.
C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase.
D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless communications between client and AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which two statements best describe LWAPP? 200-355 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco proprietary
B. communication between the AP and client
C. communication between the AP and the WLC
D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning
E. used to encrypt control and data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.)
A. AAA Server
B. Authenticatee
C. Authenticator
D. Authentication Server
E. Supplicant
Correct Answer: CDE

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Real Answers Youtube Free Updated (Q1-Q10)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDA
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Code: 200-310
Total Questions: 556 Q&As

New Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation:
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic.
Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay.
Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence.
Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR).
Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types:
weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ).
LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps

Explanation:
Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access.
We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship.
The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; 200-310 dumps only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 4
DRAG and DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 5
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to be used on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 6
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements.
Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 7
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 8
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 9
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 10
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right. 200-310 dumps
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 Dumps Exam Training Resources Update Free Shared

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps

New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service
B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA
C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC
D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which definition of a daemon on Linux is true?
A. error check right after the call to fork a process
B. new process created by duplicating the calling process
C. program that runs unobtrusively in the background
D. set of basic CPU instructions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, 210-250 dumps source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads.
Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources
B. failure of full packet capture solution
C. misconfiguration of web filter
D. TCP injection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?
A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats
B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering
C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device
D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which information security property is supported by encryption?
A. sustainability
B. integrity
C. confidentiality
D. availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which term describes the act of a user, without authority or permission, obtaining rights on a system, beyond what were assigned?
A. authentication tunneling
B. administrative abuse
C. rights exploitation
D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which definition of the IIS Log Parser tool is true?
A. a logging module for IIS that allows you to log to a database
B. a data source control to connect to your data source
C. a powerful, versatile tool that makes it possible to run SQL-like queries against log flies
D. a powerful versatile tool that verifies the integrity of the log files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backoff time.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
210-250 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
210-250 dumps In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization?
A. When moving to a different role
B. Upon termination of the employment
C. As described in the asset return policy
D. When the laptop is end of lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event
B. endpoint event
C. NetFlow event
D. intrusion event
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IPS phones?
A. replay
B. man-in-the-middle
C. dictionary
D. known-plaintext
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which definition of an antivirus program is true?
A. program used to detect and remove unwanted malicious software from the system
B. program that provides real time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and application
C. program that scans a running application for vulnerabilities
D. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is true about heuristic-based algorithms?
A. Heuristic-based algorithms may require fine tuning to adapt to network traffic and minimize the possibility of false positives.
B. Heuristic-based algorithms do not require fine tuning.
C. Heuristic-based algorithms support advanced malware protection.
D. Heuristic-based algorithms provide capabilities for the automation of IPS signature creation and tuning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which security principle states that more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. due diligence
B. separation of duties
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which tool is commonly used by threat actors on a webpage to take advantage of the software vulnerabilities of a system to spread malware?
A. exploit kit
B. root kit
C. vulnerability kit
D. script kiddie kit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?
A. input validation
B. hash collision
C. command injection
D. integer overflow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Based on which statement does the discretionary access control security model grant or restrict access ? 210-250 dumps
A. discretion of the system administrator
B. security policy defined by the owner of an object
C. security policy defined by the system administrator
D. role of a user within an organization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory
B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which statement about digitally signing a document is true?
A. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the private key.
B. The document is hashed and then the hash is encrypted with the private key.
C. The document is encrypted and then the document is hashed with the public key
D. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the public key.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You must create a vulnerability management framework. Which main purpose of this framework is true?
A. Conduct vulnerability scans on the network.
B. Manage a list of reported vulnerabilities.
C. Identify remove and mitigate system vulnerabilities.
D. Detect and remove vulnerabilities in source code.
Correct Answer: B

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