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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Practice Files Youtube Update Free Shared (Q1-Q30)

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2018 new Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 235 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. 210-060 dumps Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation: pressing the button (?) twice in quick succession during an active call.

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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210-060 dumps
Newest helpful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 210-060 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Collaboration. Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary 210-060 questions that you need to know.

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Helpful Newest Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Real Answers Youtube Free Demo (Q13-Q40)

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2018 new Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions” is the name of Cisco CCNA Wireless https://www.lead4pass.com/200-355.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

Useful latest Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. Get your Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam preparation questions in form of 200-355 PDF. Download Cisco CCNA Wireless real 200-355 dumps exam questions and verified answers. 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 504 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (13-40)

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Planning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? 200-355 dumps (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM. 200-355 dumps
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.
F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. GHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a standards?
A. BPSK
B. CCK
C. DSSS
D. OFDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. operating RF channel
B. SSID names
C. transmit power levels
D. switch port parameters
E. antenna gain
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 36
Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA?
A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information needed to allow client access to network resources.
B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client.
C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase.
D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless communications between client and AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which two statements best describe LWAPP? 200-355 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco proprietary
B. communication between the AP and client
C. communication between the AP and the WLC
D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning
E. used to encrypt control and data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.)
A. AAA Server
B. Authenticatee
C. Authenticator
D. Authentication Server
E. Supplicant
Correct Answer: CDE

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Lead4pass is the best IT learning material provider. Lead4pass is the number one choice among IT professionals, especially the ones who are looking to climb up the hierarchy levels faster in their respective organizations. Other brands appeared early, the questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the newest and cheapest questions and answers. Lead4pass is the correct choice for IT learning materials, help you pass your exam easily.
200-355 dumps
Newest helpful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNA Wireless https://www.lead4pass.com/200-355.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 200-355 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Wireless. Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary 200-355 questions that you need to know.

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Real Answers Youtube Free Updated (Q1-Q10)

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2018 new Cisco CCDA 200-310 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCDA 200-310 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions” is the name of Cisco CCDA https://www.lead4pass.com/200-310.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. If you want to get success with good grades then these Cisco CCDA 200-310 dumps exam question answers are splendid platform for you I personally review this web many times that’s why I am suggesting you this one.

Useful latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. Get your Cisco CCDA 200-310 dumps exam preparation questions in form of 200-310 PDF. Download Cisco CCDA real 200-310 dumps exam questions and verified answers. 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDA
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Code: 200-310
Total Questions: 556 Q&As

New Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation:
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic.
Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay.
Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence.
Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR).
Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types:
weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ).
LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps

Explanation:
Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access.
We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship.
The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; 200-310 dumps only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 4
DRAG and DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 5
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to be used on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 6
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements.
Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 7
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 8
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 9
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
QUESTION 10
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right. 200-310 dumps
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps

New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service
B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA
C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC
D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which definition of a daemon on Linux is true?
A. error check right after the call to fork a process
B. new process created by duplicating the calling process
C. program that runs unobtrusively in the background
D. set of basic CPU instructions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, 210-250 dumps source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads.
Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources
B. failure of full packet capture solution
C. misconfiguration of web filter
D. TCP injection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?
A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats
B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering
C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device
D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which information security property is supported by encryption?
A. sustainability
B. integrity
C. confidentiality
D. availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which term describes the act of a user, without authority or permission, obtaining rights on a system, beyond what were assigned?
A. authentication tunneling
B. administrative abuse
C. rights exploitation
D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which definition of the IIS Log Parser tool is true?
A. a logging module for IIS that allows you to log to a database
B. a data source control to connect to your data source
C. a powerful, versatile tool that makes it possible to run SQL-like queries against log flies
D. a powerful versatile tool that verifies the integrity of the log files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backoff time.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
210-250 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
210-250 dumps In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization?
A. When moving to a different role
B. Upon termination of the employment
C. As described in the asset return policy
D. When the laptop is end of lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event
B. endpoint event
C. NetFlow event
D. intrusion event
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IPS phones?
A. replay
B. man-in-the-middle
C. dictionary
D. known-plaintext
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which definition of an antivirus program is true?
A. program used to detect and remove unwanted malicious software from the system
B. program that provides real time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and application
C. program that scans a running application for vulnerabilities
D. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is true about heuristic-based algorithms?
A. Heuristic-based algorithms may require fine tuning to adapt to network traffic and minimize the possibility of false positives.
B. Heuristic-based algorithms do not require fine tuning.
C. Heuristic-based algorithms support advanced malware protection.
D. Heuristic-based algorithms provide capabilities for the automation of IPS signature creation and tuning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which security principle states that more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. due diligence
B. separation of duties
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which tool is commonly used by threat actors on a webpage to take advantage of the software vulnerabilities of a system to spread malware?
A. exploit kit
B. root kit
C. vulnerability kit
D. script kiddie kit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?
A. input validation
B. hash collision
C. command injection
D. integer overflow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Based on which statement does the discretionary access control security model grant or restrict access ? 210-250 dumps
A. discretion of the system administrator
B. security policy defined by the owner of an object
C. security policy defined by the system administrator
D. role of a user within an organization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory
B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which statement about digitally signing a document is true?
A. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the private key.
B. The document is hashed and then the hash is encrypted with the private key.
C. The document is encrypted and then the document is hashed with the public key
D. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the public key.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You must create a vulnerability management framework. Which main purpose of this framework is true?
A. Conduct vulnerability scans on the network.
B. Manage a list of reported vulnerabilities.
C. Identify remove and mitigate system vulnerabilities.
D. Detect and remove vulnerabilities in source code.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 872 Q&As
200-125 dumps

Best Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (21-50)

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. 200-125 dumps What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch ?(choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. 200-125 dumps
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 34
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 38
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 40
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 41
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
A. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
D. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What is the reason that the interface status is andquot;administratively down, line protocol downandquot;?
A. There is no encapsulation type configured.
B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 46
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 47
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 48
Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?
A. unequal cost load balancing
B. path selection
C. equal cost load balancing
D. path count
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? 200-125 dumps (Choose three)
A. Session
B. transport
C. presentation
D. application
E. data-link
F. network
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 50
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table,how dose it handle the pacet?
A. It sends the packet to the next hop address
B. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort
C. It discards the packet
D. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
Correct Answer: B

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Which is the Best Cisco CCIE 400-151 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Youtube Update

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The Best Cisco CCIE 400-151 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
In MPLS-enabled network, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 2
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPs for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3108, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Select two valid administratively scoped multicast addresses in networks running Interior Gateway protocols like EIGRP and OSPF (Choose two).
A. 239.255.255.255
B. 224.0.0.10
C. 239.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.5
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 4
The product team at an ISP that offers VoIP services wants to add two-way video conferencing to their product offering. Which three QoS methods can be applied for realtime traffic on WAN links with speeds that are slower than 768 Kbps? (Choose three.)
A. Apply voice-adaptive fragmentation to ensure that large video packets are fragmented and interleaved.
B. Apply LLQ with video traffic that is dedicated in the priority queue.
C. Apply MLP link fragmentation and interleaving to the interface.
D. Apply CBWFQ with video traffic in its own class, which is marked with aPHB value of AF41.
E. Apply CBWFQ with VoIP traffic in its own class, which is marked with aPHB value of EF.
F. Apply LLQ with both voice traffic and video traffic in the same priority queue
Correct Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 5
An engineer is deploying RTBH. What is necessary routing constraint required for successful implementation? 400-151 dumps
A. The trigger device must have an iBGP session with all the clusters/route reflectors in the autonomous system.
B. The trigger device must redistribute the static route pointing to a null interface into the IGP process.
C. The no ip reachables command must be issued on the PE router interface under attack.
D. The attacker’s destination IP address must be routed to a null interface.
E. The eBGP sessions need to set the next-hop attribute value to the trigger device loopback interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Where are MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering packets replicated?
A. head-end router
B. branch-point router
C. midpoint router
D. leaf-point router
E. tail-end router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Retaining LDP session if one links fail out of two for two neighbors.
A. MPLS LDP targeted-hello accept
B. MPLS LDP sync
C. MPLS IP
D. MPLS LDP autoconfig
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which QoS method is available when GRE is used to provide MPLS VPN services over an IP-only core?
A. matching MPLS EXP on the physical interface
B. matching EXP on the tunnel interface
C. matching DSCP on the physical interface
D. matching DSCP on the tunnel interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?
A. A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B. A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C. A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D. A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)
A. source MAC address
B. source port
C. source IP address
D. destination IP address
E. IP protocol ID
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 12
What loop prevention mechanism can be used for ospf type 3 sla in L3VPN?
A. DNbit
B. Pending
C. Pending
D. Pending
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes when used under OSPF process? 400-151 dumps
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that connect then to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. The mpls ip command on an MPLS TE tunnel.
B. The mpls idp sync command under router process configuration mode.
C. The mpls Idp autoconfig command.
D. The mpls Idp discovery targeted-hello accept command
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A service provider requires that the PE-CE link must be optimized by only compressing the TCP header regards to business traffic policy. Neither voice traffic nor other traffic policies must be compressed.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. enhanced RTP header compression
B. class-based TCP header compression
C. RTP header compression over satellite links
D. Header compression using IPHC profiles
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is the BGP synchronization rule?
A. BGP should not advertise a route until that route has been learned via an IGP.
B. Routing information received through an EBGP session is not forwarding to another EBGP neighbor, only to IBGP neighbors.
C. BGP neighbor peering are established and synchronized using TCP.
D. BGP should not advertise a route when that route has been learned via an IGP
E. Routing information received through an IBGP session is not forwarding to another IBGP neighbor, only to EBGP neighbors.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Two OSPF neighborrouters are stuck in the EXSTART state. After a while, the neighborship goes down. A network engineer is debugging the issue when both routers show the OSPF log message “too many retransmissions.” What is the possible root cause?
A. OSPF area mismatch
B. OSPF hello-interval mismatch
C. interface MTU mismatch
D. interface network type mismatch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which statement about Remotely Triggered Black Hole (RTBH) is true?
A. Route tagging is one of the techniques used by RTBH
B. It is used for BGP authentication
C. It cannot work with static routes
D. It uses extended ACLs for blocking attacks by creating a black hole
E. Before configuring RTBH. LDP must be enabled on the interface
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Customers connecting to a Service Provider for Internet access are intending to implement redundant peering. The design requirements call for preferring a primary link for both ingress and egress traffic. Secondary links should be used only during primary outages.
What two BGP deployment options will accomplish this design goal? 400-151 dumps (Choose two.)
A. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise routes with a MED value of 0.
B. On the router handling the primary link, set the weight for all incoming routes to be a value of 0.
C. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH value.
D. On the router handling the primary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH value.
E. On the router handling the secondary link, set the local preference for all incoming routes to be a value of 0.
Correct Answer: C,E

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] 100% Pass With Best Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo

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300-115 dumps

Best Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers ()

QUESTION 1
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 2
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
VTP allows switches to advertise VLAN information between other members of the same VTP domain. VTP allows a consistent view of the switched network across all switches. There are several reasons why the VLAN information can fail to be exchanged. Verify these items if switches that run VTP fail to exchange VLAN information:
– VTP information only passes through a trunk port. Make sure that all ports that interconnect switches are configured as trunks and are actually trunking. Make sure that if EtherChannels are created between two switches, only Layer 2 EtherChannels propagate VLAN information.
– Make sure that the VLANs are active in all the devices.
– One of the switches must be the VTP server in a VTP domain. All VLAN changes must be done on this switch in order to have them propagated to the VTP clients. ·The VTP domain name must match and it is case sensitive. CISCO and cisco are two different domain names.
– Make sure that no password is set between the server and client. If any password is set, make sure that the password is the same on both sides.

QUESTION 3
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
– VTP version 1 and VTP version 2 do not propagate configuration information for extended- range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). You must configure extended-range VLANs manually on each network device. 300-115 dumps
– VTP version 3 supports extended-range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). If you convert from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, the VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information. What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements, but transparent switches do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out their trunk ports in VTP Version 2.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What would cause this issue?
A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruningeligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.

QUESTION 6
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge. 300-115 dumps
RSTP bridge port roles:
– Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
– Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment
– Alternate port A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.
– Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
– Disabled port Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port

QUESTION 7
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.

QUESTION 8
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.

QUESTION 9
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can configure the amount of time that an entry (the packet source MAC address and port that packet ingresses) remain in the MAC table.
To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task:
Command Purpose
Step 1 switch# configure Enters configuration mode.
terminal
Step 2 switch(config)# mac- Specifies the time before an entry ages out address-table aging- and is discarded from the MAC address table. time seconds [vlan
The range is from 0 to 1000000; the default is vlan_id] 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. 300-115 dumps If a VLAN is not specified, the aging specification applies to all VLANs.
This example shows how to set the aging time for entries in the MAC address table to 600 seconds (10 minutes):
switch# configure terminal
switch(config)# mac-address-table aging-time 600

QUESTION 10
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber.
As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff.
This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for administrative intervention.

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[2018 New Cisco Questions] Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 Dumps Exam Answers And Youtube Shared

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300-175 dumps
QUESTION 1
When a remote endpoint dials in to join a conference that is configured on a Cisco Telepresence Server bridge, the endpoint receives only audio. Other users can successfully join the call with Voice and Video. What is causing this issue?
A. The endpoint does not have the multisite option installed.
B. The endpoint does not have the partition of the bridge in its CSS.
C. The bridge is out of all licenses.
D. The endpoint is assigned a region without enough configured bandwidth for video.
E. The bridge is not able to host video calls.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The link from your local Cisco Unity Connection site to another site has gone down. While troubleshooting, you discover that the local gateway is unable to reach a DNS server. Which action can you take to reestablish the link?
A. Restart the Connection Manager series on the local gateway
B. Create an intersite link manually using the IP address of the remote gateway.
C. Synchronize the two Cisco Unity Connection sites.
D. Create an intersite link manually using the FQDN of the remote gateway.
E. Configure the directory synchronization task schedule on the remote gateway.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Users on your network report fast busy signals when they atlempt to place calls. While troubleshooting, you verify that the codecs are configured correctly and determine that the network carries up to 200 concurrent calls at different times of the day. Which two actions correct the problem? 300-175 dumps (Choose two).
A. Add more Cisco Unified Communications Managers to the cluster.
B. Add more DSPs to the NM-HD
C. Increase the number of sessions to the maximum allowed by system resources.
D. Implement an SRST-CMF gateway to improve resource allocation.
E. Add a Cisco Catalyst switch to the environment to increase port density
F. Bind the network PRIs to add additional bandwidth
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 4
Which debug command analyzes messages that are produced by SIP during the call setup process in IOS?
A. Show isdn status
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. show sip-ua register status
D. debug isdn q931
E. debug ccsip messages
F. debug voice dialpeer
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about software MTP devices are true? (Choose two.)
A. The RTMT can monitor the number of registered and in-use MTPs.
B. A single MTP can register with multiple Cisco Unified Communications Managers.
C. Each server can support up to four instances of the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application.
D. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application can reduce the performance of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager if it is installed on the same server.
E. When you configure and restart the MTP, the changes are applied immediately to active calls.
F. When you configure and reset the MTP, the changes are applied immediately to active calls.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
After you deploy a hardware transcoder, users without a common codec are unable to complete cafe to one another.
Which two actions must you take (Choose two.)
A. Use RTMT to verify mat transcoder resources are available
B. verify that all SIP trunks are registered within Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. verify that media resources are assigned to the transcoder
D. verify that the transcoder registered with Cisco Untied Communications Manage.
E. verify that the transcoder is running the latest firmware and flash NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When you troubleshoot call connection problems in an H.323 gateway, which command allows you to verify the allocation of DSPs?
A. debug voip dialpeer
B. debug voip h324
C. debug voip ccapi inout
D. debug vtsp session
E. debug voip tsp
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323 system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. 300-175 dumps Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which configuration is required on Cisco TelePresence Server, in order to support 1080p resolution?
A. Screen licenses must be configured.
B. Cisco TelePresence Server must be in remotely managed mode.
C. Cisco TelePresence Server must be in HD mode.
D. Cisco TelePresence Server must be configured with Cisco TelePresence Conductor.
E. Cisco TelePresence Server must be in Full HD mode.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
While you deploy SAF CCD in a remote location, you are unable to enable the SAF CCD service on an Cisco IOSbased device. Which action can you take to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Verify that Cisco Unity Express is operational.
B. Verify that IOS Release 15.0(1)M is installed.
C. Verify that DSP Farm resources are configured on the device.
D. Verify that the device has sufficient RAM to run SAF CCD.
E. Verify the integrity of the flash installation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two troubleshooting tools would initially be the best to use when troubleshooting the PSTN gateway side of a call routing issue while using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT trace output
B. Cisco IOS debug commands
C. Dialed Number Analyzer output
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
E. Cisco IOS show commands
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
When users in headquarters call branch office users over the WAN link, branch users report poor audio quality.
Headquarters users consistently experience acceptable audio quality. Which troubleshooting approach most directly improves the audio quality of the branch users?
A. Make the branch router configuration for LLQ match the headquarters router.
B. Make the headquarters router configuration for LLQ match the branch router.
C. Make the branch router configuration for CBWFQ match the headquarters router.
D. Make the headquarters router configuration for CBWFQ match the branch router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What is the default interval for SAF hello packets?
A. 15seconds
B. 15 seconds on links with speeds that are slower than T1 speeds
C. 40seconds
D. 40 seconds on links with speeds that are slower than T1 speeds
E. 60seconds
F. 60 seconds on links with speeds that are slower than T1 speeds
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 14
A user is trying to call a mobile phone using the number 547895341, where 5 is the prefix to can off-net numbers. 300-175 dumps Calls to mobile phones have worked in past, but now the call does not work. Which three areas should you check, to resolve the issue? (Choose three)
A. Verify that the Cisco Unified Border Element is running.
B. Verify the search pattern.
C. Verity the route pattern, route list, and route group.
D. Check that Cisco VCS Control and Cisco VCS Express are getting through the firewall.
E. Verify that me PSTN line is connected to the cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Verify that the connection to and from the Cisco Unified Border Element is good.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
During a business-to-business video call through the Cisco Expressway solution, the internal endpoint can call out to the remote endpoint on the Internet, but it does not receive audio or video. The remote endpoint receives both audio and video. What is causing the issue?
A. The Cisco Expressway does not have a Rich Media Session license.
B. The firewall is blocking SIP signaling.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not configured for business-to-business calling.
D. The firewall is blocking inbound RTP ports.
E. The Advanced Networking option is not installed on the Expressway Edge.
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Cisco Questions] Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Free Shared

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200-355 dumps
QUESTION 1
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
200-355 dumps
200-355 dumps
200-355 dumps
200-355 dumps
200-355 dumps
When a client associates to ExamSSlD, which network address will be assigned? 200-355 dumps
A. The IP address assigned will be based on the AP network assignment of 10.10.10.0.
B. The IP address assigned will be based on the AP network assignment of 172.16.23.0.
C. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 172.16.23.0,192.168.14.0 address pools.
D. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 192.168.14.0,192.168.25.0 pools.
E. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 172.16.23.0,192.168.14.0,192.168.25.0 pools.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two services require an RToWLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. wVoIP
B. video conferencing
C. multicast video
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
What suite of algorithms results in slower connection rates when using 802.11N technology?
A. WPA2
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. AES
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a SSID to utilize the management interface on the WLC. The management interface is configured with an untagged VLAN in the wireless controller interface settings. The controller is connected to a neighboring switch via the interface shown in the diagram.
Which VLAN will traffic coming from the newly created SSID use to traverse the wired network?
A. 1
B. 20
C. 44
D. 50
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file? 200-355 dumps
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A help desk engineer is attempting to perform a remote packet capture on the wireless network. Which access point mode is necessary to perform this function?
A. sniffer
B. SE-Connect
C. monitor
D. rogue detector
E. FlexConnect
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which description best describes upfade in a multipath environment?
A. In this situation, multiple signal paths are not sent at exactly the same time. The receiver receives a positive crest on the primary signal and a negative crest on the secondary signal.
B. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are distorted and difficult to understand.
C. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are weaker than they should be because the signals are out of phase with each other.
D. In this situation, the signal is stronger than it should be because multiple signal paths are received twice at exactly the same time, which results in the multiple signals being in- phase.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 New Cisco Questions] Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo Free Shared

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210-451 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Cisco APICs utilize sharding to provide what function for an ACI fabric?
A. It provides scalability and reliability to the data sets generated and processed by the Distributed Policy Repository, the endpoint registry, the Observer, and the Topology Manager
B. It provides replication of application network policies across the APICs in the cluster
C. It provides a method for determining which APIC will act as the master in a fabric during the election process
D. It provides horizontal scaling ability for policy management on APICs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? 210-451 dumps (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD
210-451 dumps
QUESTION 9
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where is the Hypervisor installed? 210-451 dumps
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which type of zoning is represented?
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

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