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QUESTION 1

Distributed File System (DFS) is used to:

A. Delegate permissions to a global distribution group.
B. Implement parity.
C. Group shared folders from different servers.
D. Configure spanned and extended volumes.

Correct Answer: C

Distributed File System (DFS) is a set of client and server services that allow an organization using Microsoft Windows servers to organize many distributed SMB file shares into a distributed file system. DFS provides location transparency and redundancy to improve data availability in the face of failure or heavy load by allowing shares in multiple different locations to be logically grouped under one folder or DFS root.

QUESTION 2

You buy a new USB hard drive for your server. After connecting the drive, you need to make this drive available to
Windows. In Computer Management Disk Management you see the drive, but it is not visible in Explorer\’s Computer view, as shown in the following image:

microsoft 98-365 exam questions q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point. Hot Area:

microsoft 98-365 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft 98-365 exam questions q2-2

Use simple to get a separate volume.
Use NTFS to be able to use the whole drive. exFAT and FAT32 have restrictions on size.
Simple. This will assign a new drive letter to your new disk and each drive will work independently of the other. Spanned. Your new HDD will show up as part of your current HDD.

QUESTION 3

You are an IT technician for a company that has an environment consisting entirely of computers running Windows
Server 2016 or Windows 10. Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
You need to establish a secure method that allows employees to work remotely but still have access to the internal
network resources. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Offline Files
B. DirectAccess
C. Network Access Protection (NAP)
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
E. Distributed File System (DFS) Namespace
F. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: BD

B: DirectAccess, also known as Unified Remote Access, is a VPN-like technology that provides intranet connectivity to client computers when they are connected to the Internet.

D: The remote users can get secure remote access through a VPN. References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DirectAccess

QUESTION 4

Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file?

A. . xml
B. . vhd
C. ,vud
D. . vsd

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which type of additional drivers does the Windows 10 installation phase prompt for?

A. Video
B. Network
C. Use
D. Storage

Correct Answer: D

You might be prompted for the mass storage device driver.
When installing Windows 10, you might see one of the following error messages:
References: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/windows-7-installation-problem-hard-drive-not-found

QUESTION 6

You are working on a Windows 2016 environment.
You find that some applications are not responding while creating a project. You want to terminate these applications
anyhow and start a new session.

What will you do to accomplish the task?

A. Use Device Manager.
B. Use Network Monitor.
C. Use System Monitor.
D. Use Task Manager.

Correct Answer: D

In order to accomplish the task, you should use Task Manager. A task manager is a program used to provide
information about the processes and programs running on a computer, as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as change the process’s priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-Alt-Delete. The task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All information\’s about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Device Manager is a tool that can be used to manage devices on a computer. Using Device Manager, users can view and change device properties, update device drivers, configure device settings, and uninstall devices. Device Manager is organized in a tree format with the top branches representing device categories. Users can use Device Manager to identify port resource conflicts. Device Manager can also be used to enable or disable a device.

B: Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Network Monitor can perform the following functions:
Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes.
Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames.
Monitoring bandwidth based on a percentage of the network used.
Monitoring errors, which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network.

C: System Monitor is a Windows utility that enables users to monitor server activity and performance using predefined objects and counters or user-defined counters. It tracks items such as I/O, memory usage, user connections, and locks. Although it can monitor the number of locks held, it cannot be used to capture information on particular locks and activities.

QUESTION 7

You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 domain-based
network. The network contains twenty Windows Server 2016 and 600 Windows 10 client computers.
You want to manage the installation of Windows updates on the client computers so that each client does not have to
download updates for his computer. You also want only those updates to be installed on the client computers that you
have tested and approved.

Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?

A. EMS
B. DISM
C. SCCM
D. SCOM

Correct Answer: C

In order to accomplish the task, you should use SCCM (System Center Configuration Manager). It is used to
automatically install Windows updates on the computer. It allows an administrator to test and approve the updates to be installed on the client computers. System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM), formerly Systems Management Server (SMS), is a systems management software product by Microsoft for managing large groups of Windows-based computer systems. Configuration Manager provides remote control, patch management, software distribution, operating system deployment, network access protection, and hardware and software inventory.

Incorrect Answers:

A: Emergency Management Services (EMS) is a Windows Server 2016 tool that allows a server to be controlled when it is in a minimally functional state. It allows administrators to take control of the server by connecting through a serial port using an application such as Telnet. EMS also enables administrators to perform all normal server management tasks through the command line. EMS is a helpful tool in case of emergency when other methods of administration are not available. Most organizations use EMS to manage a server that is not responding to normal management technologies.

B: DISM stands for Deployment Image Servicing and Management. DISM is a command-line tool used to service Windows images offline before deployment. This tool is also used to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. DISM is also distributed in the Windows OEM Pre-installation Kit and the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK). It has replaced several Windows OPK tools, including PEimg, Intlcfg, and Package Manager.

D: System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) is a tool that offers service-oriented monitoring that enables
administrators to monitor information technology services, scale monitoring across large organizations, and use Microsoft application and operating system knowledge to resolve operational problems. It provides an easy-to-use monitoring environment that monitors a large number of servers, applications, and clients to provide a comprehensive view of the health of an organization\’s IT environments.

QUESTION 8

You plan to repurpose an existing computer to run a clean installation of Windows Server 2016 Standard edition. Which type of hard drive interface should you use for the boot drive?

A. PATA
B. ATA
C. SATA
D. IDE

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.ifixit.com/Wiki/Hard_Drive_Interfaces

QUESTION 9

What port do Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance use?

A. 1471
B. 3389
C. 4043
D. 8080

Correct Answer: B

To access a computer running Remote Desktop Services, you use Remote Desktop Connections to access a
computer\’s graphical user interface, including the desktop, start menu, and programs, just as if you were sitting in front of the computer. Two technologies that allow you to remotely access a computer\’s desktop are Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance over TCP port 3389.

QUESTION 10

What boot option starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services?

A. Safe mode
B. Last Known Good Configuration
C. Directory Services Restore Mode
D. Debugging Mode

Correct Answer: A

Safe mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. If you make a change to the system and Windows no longer boots, you can try safe mode.

QUESTION 11

You are viewing the Device Manager on a computer running Windows Server 2016. What does a down black arrow
indicate?

A. The device is having down and having problems.
B. The device is disabled.
C. The device is a generic driver.
D. The device is not connected.

Correct Answer: B

A down black arrow indicates a disabled device. A disabled device is physically present in the computer and is consuming resources, but it does not have a driver loaded.

QUESTION 12

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You install three 600GB hard disks in a computer running Windows Server 2016 Standard edition. You need to
configure at least 1TB of fault-tolerant storage from the hard disks.
You configure that hard disk as a RAID 5 configuration.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 10
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.prepressure.com/library/technology/raid

QUESTION 13

You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a virtual server hosted on a Windows Server
2016 server with the Hyper-V role installed.
You have upgraded an application on the virtual server. You experience that this upgrade causes problems. Now, you
want to quickly revert back to the point before the changes are made. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Virtual Server Migration Toolkit
B. Checkpoints
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Logical unit number

Correct Answer: B

In order to accomplish the task, you should use checkpoints. Snapshots have been improved in Windows Server 2016 and are now called checkpoints.
Checkpoints are files that contain the configuration and data in a virtualized machine.
The Hyper-V Manager Console provides the facility to take a snapshot of a virtual machine running under Hyper-V. This snapshot can be used to quickly roll back the instance of an operating system when the snapshot was taken. In-state of any disaster such as malfunctioning virtual machines, these snapshots are very helpful to recover from such situations.

Incorrect Answers:

A: The Virtual Server Migration Toolkit (VSMT), a command-line-based tool provided by Windows Server 2016, is used to migrate existing servers in the network environment to a virtualized partition of Windows Server 2016. VSMT has been specially designed for administrators to handle a small number of servers that need to be virtualized.
It, however, cannot be used to manage these servers. It uses XML files to store configuration data during the migration process. The tool is compatible with both the Hyper-V and the Virtual Server 2005 R2.

C: Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM) is a tool for resource management and enables the allocation of resources, including processor and memory resources, among multiple applications based on business priorities. With WSRM, a system administrator can set CPU and memory allocation policies on applications, manage CPU utilization, and apply policies to users or groups on a Terminal Services application server. WSRM also applies limits to process working set size and committed memory consumption.

D: The logical unit number or LUN is the identifier of a SCSI logical unit, and by extension of a Fibre Channel or iSCSI logical unit. A logical unit is a SCSI protocol entity, which performs classic storage operations such as read and writes. Each SCSI target provides one or more logical units. A logical unit typically corresponds to a storage volume and is represented within a computer operating system as a device.

QUESTION 14

Which type of group can contain any user or group in any domain and can be assigned to any resource in any domain?

A. domain local group
B. global group
C. universal group
D. distribution group

Correct Answer: C

Universal group scope is designed to contain global groups from multiple domains. Universal groups can contain global groups, other universal groups, and user accounts. Because global catalogs replicate universal group membership, you should limit the membership to global groups.

QUESTION 15

You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network
environment.
The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. You use
Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) to replicate SYSVOL.
Which of the following statements are true about Distributed File System Replication (DFSR)? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. It makes use of a staging folder for staging the file before the file is send or received.
B. It can detect insertions, removals, and rearrangement of data in files.
C. It is considered a state-based, Multimaster replication engine that is used in replication scheduling and bandwidth
throttling.
D. It replicates the entire file when a file is changed.

Correct Answer: ABC

Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) is considered a state-based, Multimaster replication engine that is used in replication scheduling and bandwidth throttling. It can detect insertions, removals, and rearrangement of data in files.

This permits DFSR to replicate the file blocks that are changed when files get updated. It detects changes on the volume using the Update Sequence Number journal, and then DFSR replicates changes only after the file is closed. It makes use of a staging folder for staging the file before the file is sent or received. The RDC protocol supports finding the blocks that have changed in the file.

Incorrect Answers:

D: DFSR does not replicate the entire file when a file is changed. It replicates only the changed blocks when the file is changed.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb540031(v=vs.85).aspx

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Microsoft 98-365 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network
environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest network.
You are configuring a new computer. You want to configure the computer\\’s hard disk as a dynamic disk.
Which of the following command-line tools will you use to convert a hard disk from basic to dynamic?
A. NTDSUTIL
B. DISKPART
C. FDISK
D. FSUTIL
Correct Answer: B
In order to accomplish the task, you will have to use the DISKPART command-line utility.
A dynamic disk is a physical disk, which supports volumes that span multiple disks such as striped volume, RAID- 5
volume, etc. A dynamic disk uses a hidden database to track information about dynamic volumes on the disk and other
dynamic disks in the computer. Dynamic disks can be made by converting the basic disks. This can be done by using
Disk Management or the DISKPART command-line utility. When a basic disk is converted into a dynamic disk, all
existing basic volumes become dynamic volumes.

 

QUESTION 2
What technology is used to standardize the Windows environment on all client computers?
A. Group Policy
B. Registry
C. Bindery
D. DMZ
Correct Answer: A
One of Active Directory\\’s most powerful features is Group Policy, which controls the working environment for user
accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy provides centralized management and configuration of operating
systems, applications, and user settings in an Active Directory environment.

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following protocols do iSCSI fabrics use to provide discoverability and partitioning of resources?
A. SCSI
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. iSNS
Correct Answer: D
Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) is a protocol that allows automated discovery, management, and configuration of
iSCSI and Fibre Channel devices (using iFCP gateways) on a TCP/IP network. iSNS provides management services
similar to those found in Fibre Channel networks, allowing a standard IP network to operate in much the same way that
a Fibre Channel storage area network does. Because iSNS is able to emulate Fibre Channel fabric services and
manage both iSCSI and Fibre Channel devices, an iSNS server can be used as a consolidated configuration point for
an entire storage network.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated
Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk
drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives
simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
B: The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission
on the Internet. SSL has recently been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses
a program layer located between the Internet\\’s Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol
(TCP) layers. URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:.
C: Transport Layer Security is a standard protocol used to secure Web communications on the Internet or intranets by
means of encryption. With the help of TLS, clients can authenticate servers or servers can authenticate clients. TLS is
the latest version of the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol.

 

QUESTION 4
You manage the servers for the School of Business at your university. The school has a Hyper-V server that runs three
virtual machines (VMs). Each VM runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to apply the latest Windows server updates to each of the VMs. You need to be able to revert the servers
back to their original state before applying the updates.
Which Microsoft Virtualization feature should you use?
A. Live Migration
B. Checkpoints
C. VHD Virtual Hard Disks
D. Failover Cluster
Correct Answer: B
Checkpoints (formerly called snapshots) provide a fast and easy way to revert the virtual machine to a previous state.


QUESTION 5
Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two.)
A. Shared storage
B. Failover
C. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D. Shared services
Correct Answer: BC
The difference between NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
An NLB array allows load to be spread NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
A failover cluster provides high availability and redundancy, but doesn\\’t spread the load. Only one server is live at any
time, but the clustered application(s) can be moved to the other server very quickly.

 

QUESTION 6
What is the default port used by iSCSI?
A. 8080
B. 3128
C. 3260
D. 9000
Correct Answer: C
Internet Small Computing System Interface (iSCSI) is an Internet Protocol (IP) – based storage networking standard for
linking data storage facilities. iSCSI allows clients to send SCSI commands over a TCP/IP network using TCP port
3260.

 

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum share permission needed to modify files and its attributes?
A. Full Control
B. Change
C. Write
D. Write
Correct Answer: B
The Change permission give users the Read permission and the additional capability to create files and subfolders,
modify files, change attributes on files and subfolders, and delete files and subfolders.

 

QUESTION 8
To protect a server in case of a blackout, you should use a/an:
A. Uninterruptible Power Supply.
B. Dedicated surge protector.
C. Power Supply Unit.
D. Redundant power supply.
E. Hot-swappable power supply.
F. Line conditioner.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What is used to grant access to objects such as NTFS files or Active Directory user accounts?
A. right
B. permission
C. certificate
D. template
Correct Answer: B
Permissions defined as the type of access granted to objects such as NTFS files and folders.

 

QUESTION 10
The best method to data recovery is:
A. backup
B. DFS
C. RAID
D. spare drives
Correct Answer: A
A backup, or the process of backing up, refers to making copies of data so that these copies can be used to restore the
original after a data-loss event. They can be used to restore entire systems following a disaster or to restore small file
sets that were accidentally deleted or corrupted.

 

QUESTION 11
The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2016 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk
space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server, you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2016: one to
act as a web server and one to act as a database server.
Which Windows Server 2016 role or feature provides this capability?
A. Windows Deployment Services
B. Hyper-V
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Windows Internal Database
Correct Answer: B
Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems.
Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the
client editions of Windows NT. A server computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual
machines to
one or more networks.

 

QUESTION 12
Which technology provides both e-mail and database services?
A. Windows Server Enterprise Edition
B. Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Windows Server Essentials
D. Microsoft Project Server
Correct Answer: C
Windows Server Essentials (formerly Windows Small Business Server or SBS) is an integrated server suite from
Microsoft designed for running network infrastructure (both intranet management and Internet access) of small and
midsize businesses having no more than 25 users or 50 devices. Application server technologies are tightly integrated
to provide and offer management benefits such as integrated setup, enhanced monitoring, Remote Web Workplace, a
unified management console, and remote access.


QUESTION 13
What type of driver is tested and includes a digital certificate?
A. published
B. certified
C. compliant
D. signed
Correct Answer: D
A signed device driver includes a digital signature, which is an electronic security mark that can indicate the software
publisher and information that can show whether a driver has been altered. When Microsoft signs it, the driver has been thoroughly tested to ensure that it will not cause problems with the system\\’s reliability or cause a security problem.


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following represents the primary function of a server?
A. To provide the server role in the organization\\’s network.
B. To provide client access to the organization\\’s network.
C. To provide services to client computers on the organization\\’s network.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the organization\\’s network.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You need to install a driver. Where should you get the driver?
A. The Task Manager
B. The device manufacturer
C. The system firmware
D. The Hardware Compatibility List
Correct Answer: B
The device manufacturer should provide a driver.

 

QUESTION 3
Which provides centralized management of users and computers?
A. Active Directory
B. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Remote Access
Correct Answer: A
Active Directory (AD) is a directory service implemented by Microsoft for Windows domain networks. It is included in
most Windows Server operating systems. An AD domain controller authenticates and authorizes all users and
computers in a Windows domain type network–assigning and enforcing security policies for all computers and installing
or updating software.


QUESTION 4
Where are domain user accounts managed in Windows Server?
A. Local Users and Groups console
B. Control Panel
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Active Directory-based multiple
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2016.
You want to allow some groups to take more control of their local network resources by delegating administrative control
to a level of a domain tree.
What will you do? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. (Choose two.)
A. Configure the Demilitarized zone (DMZ).
B. Create organizational units within a domain.
C. Provide administrative privileges to particular groups.
D. Delegate administrative control for specific organizational units to particular groups.
Correct Answer: BD
In order to allow some groups to take more control of their local network resources by delegating administrative control
to a level of a domain tree, you should take the following steps:
Create organizational units within a domain.
Delegate administrative control for specific organizational units to particular users or groups.
Incorrect Answers:
A: DMZ provides a network the ability to use the Internet while maintaining its security.
C: Providing administrative privileges to particular groups is not required to accomplish the task.

 

QUESTION 6
In an Active Directory infrastructure, the group policies are applied in a particular order. Rearrange the levels in the
correct order in which the group policies are applied.
Select and Place:lead4pass 98-365 practice test q6

In an Active Directory infrastructure, the group policies are applied in the following order:
1.
Local Level
2.
Site Level
3.
Domain-Level
4.
Organizational Unit (OU) Level
If a Group Policy setting is configured at the site, domain, or OU level and that setting contradicts a setting configured at
the local policy level, the local policy setting will be overridden.

 

QUESTION 7
What are the two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.)
A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site.
B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to.
C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object.
D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy.
Correct Answer: BD
Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge. References:
http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group-policy.html

 

QUESTION 8
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 based network
environment. There are twenty client computers running Windows 10 and three servers running Windows Server 2016.
You want to increase the data availability for these servers without rebuilding them and without investing a large amount
of money in purchasing array controllers.
What will you do? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Add another physical drive to each server.
B. Convert the drives from basic disks to dynamic disks.
C. Implement the RAID 1 solution between the two drives.
D. Ensure that the backups are running smoothly.
Correct Answer: ABC
In order to increase the data availability for the servers without rebuilding them and without investing a large amount of
money for purchasing array controllers, you should do the following tasks:
Add another physical drive to each server.
Convert the drives from basic disks to dynamic disks.
Implement the RAID 1 solution between the two drives.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Backups do not increase the data availability. They help you in restoring the original data after a data loss event.

 

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
“Microsoft App-V” can make applications available to end-user computers without having to install the applications on
those computers.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select \\’ No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. DirectAccess
C. Windows Deployment Services
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: D
Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed (“streamed”) in real-time to
any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for traditional local installation of the applications.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsoft_App-V

 

QUESTION 10
What shares are usually hidden and are used for administrative purposes?
A. denied view share
B. explicit share
C. magic share
D. administrative share
Correct Answer: D
An administrative share is a shared folder typically used for administrative purposes and usually hidden. To make any
shared folder or drive hidden, the share name must have a $ at the end of it.

 

QUESTION 11
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. You have to set up five servers and ten workstations per
specification. Your organization uses Windows Deployment Services whenever a new workstation or server is set up.
You want to automate the installations with as little human interaction as possible.
Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. ImageX
B. System Preparation Tool 3.14
C. Setup Manager
D. Windows System Image Manager
Correct Answer: D
In order to accomplish the task, you should use Windows System Image Manager. Windows System Image Manager
(Windows SIM) is a Windows Server 2016 tool to create Windows Server 2016 answer files. It saves unattended answer
files in XML format. By using Windows SIM, administrators can verify that an unattended answer file actually produces
the desired result. Windows SIM is included with the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK). The answer
file automatically provides the answers to the setup question: configures and installs necessary software during the
installation process.
Incorrect Answers:
A: ImageX is a command-line tool that captures, modifies, and applies installation images for deployment in a large
environment. ImageX uses the Microsoft Windows Imaging Format (WIM) image format. ImageX captures a volume to a
WIM file and applies a WIM file to a volume.
B: System Preparation Tool 3.14 (SYSPREP) is used to capture an image of the reference computer so that it can be
used on multiple client computers. SYSPREP 3.14 allows administrators to duplicate a custom image of the Windows
Sever 2008/Vista/Windows 10 installation from a master computer to the destination computers. The SYSPREP tool can
be found in the % SystemRoot%\System32\Syseprep folder of the Windows Vista or Windows Server 2016 installation.
C: The Setup Manager tool can be used to create an answer file and to configure a limited number of answer file
settings. It is included in the DEPLOY.CAB file in the Support folder on the Windows Server 2003 operating system CD.
Setup Manager is used only with the Windows XP Professional or Windows Server 2003 operating systems to create
answer files for unattended installations.

 

QUESTION 12
Users report that they are unable to print. You verify that the print spooler service is running. What should you do next?
A. Purge the service
B. Disable the service
C. Pause the service
D. Restart the service
Correct Answer: D


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