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QUESTION 1

Distributed File System (DFS) is used to:

A. Delegate permissions to a global distribution group.
B. Implement parity.
C. Group shared folders from different servers.
D. Configure spanned and extended volumes.

Correct Answer: C

Distributed File System (DFS) is a set of client and server services that allow an organization using Microsoft Windows servers to organize many distributed SMB file shares into a distributed file system. DFS provides location transparency and redundancy to improve data availability in the face of failure or heavy load by allowing shares in multiple different locations to be logically grouped under one folder or DFS root.

QUESTION 2

You buy a new USB hard drive for your server. After connecting the drive, you need to make this drive available to
Windows. In Computer Management Disk Management you see the drive, but it is not visible in Explorer\’s Computer view, as shown in the following image:

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point. Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Use simple to get a separate volume.
Use NTFS to be able to use the whole drive. exFAT and FAT32 have restrictions on size.
Simple. This will assign a new drive letter to your new disk and each drive will work independently of the other. Spanned. Your new HDD will show up as part of your current HDD.

QUESTION 3

You are an IT technician for a company that has an environment consisting entirely of computers running Windows
Server 2016 or Windows 10. Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
You need to establish a secure method that allows employees to work remotely but still have access to the internal
network resources. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Offline Files
B. DirectAccess
C. Network Access Protection (NAP)
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
E. Distributed File System (DFS) Namespace
F. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: BD

B: DirectAccess, also known as Unified Remote Access, is a VPN-like technology that provides intranet connectivity to client computers when they are connected to the Internet.

D: The remote users can get secure remote access through a VPN. References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DirectAccess

QUESTION 4

Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file?

A. . xml
B. . vhd
C. ,vud
D. . vsd

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which type of additional drivers does the Windows 10 installation phase prompt for?

A. Video
B. Network
C. Use
D. Storage

Correct Answer: D

You might be prompted for the mass storage device driver.
When installing Windows 10, you might see one of the following error messages:
References: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/windows-7-installation-problem-hard-drive-not-found

QUESTION 6

You are working on a Windows 2016 environment.
You find that some applications are not responding while creating a project. You want to terminate these applications
anyhow and start a new session.

What will you do to accomplish the task?

A. Use Device Manager.
B. Use Network Monitor.
C. Use System Monitor.
D. Use Task Manager.

Correct Answer: D

In order to accomplish the task, you should use Task Manager. A task manager is a program used to provide
information about the processes and programs running on a computer, as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as change the process’s priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-Alt-Delete. The task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All information\’s about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Device Manager is a tool that can be used to manage devices on a computer. Using Device Manager, users can view and change device properties, update device drivers, configure device settings, and uninstall devices. Device Manager is organized in a tree format with the top branches representing device categories. Users can use Device Manager to identify port resource conflicts. Device Manager can also be used to enable or disable a device.

B: Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Network Monitor can perform the following functions:
Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes.
Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames.
Monitoring bandwidth based on a percentage of the network used.
Monitoring errors, which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network.

C: System Monitor is a Windows utility that enables users to monitor server activity and performance using predefined objects and counters or user-defined counters. It tracks items such as I/O, memory usage, user connections, and locks. Although it can monitor the number of locks held, it cannot be used to capture information on particular locks and activities.

QUESTION 7

You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 domain-based
network. The network contains twenty Windows Server 2016 and 600 Windows 10 client computers.
You want to manage the installation of Windows updates on the client computers so that each client does not have to
download updates for his computer. You also want only those updates to be installed on the client computers that you
have tested and approved.

Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?

A. EMS
B. DISM
C. SCCM
D. SCOM

Correct Answer: C

In order to accomplish the task, you should use SCCM (System Center Configuration Manager). It is used to
automatically install Windows updates on the computer. It allows an administrator to test and approve the updates to be installed on the client computers. System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM), formerly Systems Management Server (SMS), is a systems management software product by Microsoft for managing large groups of Windows-based computer systems. Configuration Manager provides remote control, patch management, software distribution, operating system deployment, network access protection, and hardware and software inventory.

Incorrect Answers:

A: Emergency Management Services (EMS) is a Windows Server 2016 tool that allows a server to be controlled when it is in a minimally functional state. It allows administrators to take control of the server by connecting through a serial port using an application such as Telnet. EMS also enables administrators to perform all normal server management tasks through the command line. EMS is a helpful tool in case of emergency when other methods of administration are not available. Most organizations use EMS to manage a server that is not responding to normal management technologies.

B: DISM stands for Deployment Image Servicing and Management. DISM is a command-line tool used to service Windows images offline before deployment. This tool is also used to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. DISM is also distributed in the Windows OEM Pre-installation Kit and the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK). It has replaced several Windows OPK tools, including PEimg, Intlcfg, and Package Manager.

D: System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) is a tool that offers service-oriented monitoring that enables
administrators to monitor information technology services, scale monitoring across large organizations, and use Microsoft application and operating system knowledge to resolve operational problems. It provides an easy-to-use monitoring environment that monitors a large number of servers, applications, and clients to provide a comprehensive view of the health of an organization\’s IT environments.

QUESTION 8

You plan to repurpose an existing computer to run a clean installation of Windows Server 2016 Standard edition. Which type of hard drive interface should you use for the boot drive?

A. PATA
B. ATA
C. SATA
D. IDE

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.ifixit.com/Wiki/Hard_Drive_Interfaces

QUESTION 9

What port do Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance use?

A. 1471
B. 3389
C. 4043
D. 8080

Correct Answer: B

To access a computer running Remote Desktop Services, you use Remote Desktop Connections to access a
computer\’s graphical user interface, including the desktop, start menu, and programs, just as if you were sitting in front of the computer. Two technologies that allow you to remotely access a computer\’s desktop are Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance over TCP port 3389.

QUESTION 10

What boot option starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services?

A. Safe mode
B. Last Known Good Configuration
C. Directory Services Restore Mode
D. Debugging Mode

Correct Answer: A

Safe mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. If you make a change to the system and Windows no longer boots, you can try safe mode.

QUESTION 11

You are viewing the Device Manager on a computer running Windows Server 2016. What does a down black arrow
indicate?

A. The device is having down and having problems.
B. The device is disabled.
C. The device is a generic driver.
D. The device is not connected.

Correct Answer: B

A down black arrow indicates a disabled device. A disabled device is physically present in the computer and is consuming resources, but it does not have a driver loaded.

QUESTION 12

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You install three 600GB hard disks in a computer running Windows Server 2016 Standard edition. You need to
configure at least 1TB of fault-tolerant storage from the hard disks.
You configure that hard disk as a RAID 5 configuration.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 10
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.prepressure.com/library/technology/raid

QUESTION 13

You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a virtual server hosted on a Windows Server
2016 server with the Hyper-V role installed.
You have upgraded an application on the virtual server. You experience that this upgrade causes problems. Now, you
want to quickly revert back to the point before the changes are made. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Virtual Server Migration Toolkit
B. Checkpoints
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Logical unit number

Correct Answer: B

In order to accomplish the task, you should use checkpoints. Snapshots have been improved in Windows Server 2016 and are now called checkpoints.
Checkpoints are files that contain the configuration and data in a virtualized machine.
The Hyper-V Manager Console provides the facility to take a snapshot of a virtual machine running under Hyper-V. This snapshot can be used to quickly roll back the instance of an operating system when the snapshot was taken. In-state of any disaster such as malfunctioning virtual machines, these snapshots are very helpful to recover from such situations.

Incorrect Answers:

A: The Virtual Server Migration Toolkit (VSMT), a command-line-based tool provided by Windows Server 2016, is used to migrate existing servers in the network environment to a virtualized partition of Windows Server 2016. VSMT has been specially designed for administrators to handle a small number of servers that need to be virtualized.
It, however, cannot be used to manage these servers. It uses XML files to store configuration data during the migration process. The tool is compatible with both the Hyper-V and the Virtual Server 2005 R2.

C: Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM) is a tool for resource management and enables the allocation of resources, including processor and memory resources, among multiple applications based on business priorities. With WSRM, a system administrator can set CPU and memory allocation policies on applications, manage CPU utilization, and apply policies to users or groups on a Terminal Services application server. WSRM also applies limits to process working set size and committed memory consumption.

D: The logical unit number or LUN is the identifier of a SCSI logical unit, and by extension of a Fibre Channel or iSCSI logical unit. A logical unit is a SCSI protocol entity, which performs classic storage operations such as read and writes. Each SCSI target provides one or more logical units. A logical unit typically corresponds to a storage volume and is represented within a computer operating system as a device.

QUESTION 14

Which type of group can contain any user or group in any domain and can be assigned to any resource in any domain?

A. domain local group
B. global group
C. universal group
D. distribution group

Correct Answer: C

Universal group scope is designed to contain global groups from multiple domains. Universal groups can contain global groups, other universal groups, and user accounts. Because global catalogs replicate universal group membership, you should limit the membership to global groups.

QUESTION 15

You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network
environment.
The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. You use
Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) to replicate SYSVOL.
Which of the following statements are true about Distributed File System Replication (DFSR)? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. It makes use of a staging folder for staging the file before the file is send or received.
B. It can detect insertions, removals, and rearrangement of data in files.
C. It is considered a state-based, Multimaster replication engine that is used in replication scheduling and bandwidth
throttling.
D. It replicates the entire file when a file is changed.

Correct Answer: ABC

Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) is considered a state-based, Multimaster replication engine that is used in replication scheduling and bandwidth throttling. It can detect insertions, removals, and rearrangement of data in files.

This permits DFSR to replicate the file blocks that are changed when files get updated. It detects changes on the volume using the Update Sequence Number journal, and then DFSR replicates changes only after the file is closed. It makes use of a staging folder for staging the file before the file is sent or received. The RDC protocol supports finding the blocks that have changed in the file.

Incorrect Answers:

D: DFSR does not replicate the entire file when a file is changed. It replicates only the changed blocks when the file is changed.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/bb540031(v=vs.85).aspx

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QUESTION 1
You are interviewing for a job at Adventure Works, Inc. The hiring manager asks you to create a single console
program.
The program takes multiple arguments from the command line and writes them to the screen in the same order as they were typed on the command line.
Which three code segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate code segments from the list of code segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/getStarted/cupojava/netbeans.html

 

QUESTION 2
You are writing a Java method.
The method accepts a two-dimensional String array and prints the content of each array element.
The size of each dimension of the array might be different.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.tutorialgateway.org/two-dimensional-array-in-java/

 

QUESTION 3
Traders hires you to write a Java program to manage account openings. To open a new account, a user must meet one
the following requirements:
be over 65 years old and have a minimum annual income of 10,000
be at least 21 and have an annual income greater than 25,000
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate operator to the correct position. Each operator
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/java_basic_operators.htm

 

QUESTION 4
You attend an interview for a job as a Java programmer.
You need to declare a two by three array of the double type with initial values.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 5
You are creating a method that processes invoices. The invoices are contained in an ArrayList instance. After each
invoice is processed, the method must remove the invoice from the ArrayList instance.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://beginnersbook.com/2013/12/java-arraylist/

 

QUESTION 6
You are writing a Java console program. The program must meet the following requirements: Read a line of text entered
by the user
Print each word in the text to the console on a separate line How should you complete the code? To answer, select the
appropriate code segments in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/util/Scanner.html

 

QUESTION 7
The question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You should use an int data type to store the numeric value 3,000,000,000 (3 billion) so that the least amount of memory
is used.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. a short
C. a byte
D. a long
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
You work as a Java programmer. A member of the team creates the following program. Line numbers are included for
reference only.

The program is supposed to display a message to the console while it counts down from 60. The method does not work
as intended.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/operators.html

 

QUESTION 9
You are creating a method that converts a string representation of a number into an actual number.
The numbers passed into the method include whole numbers and fractional numbers.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/data/converting.html

 

QUESTION 10
You need to evaluate the following Java program. Line numbers are included for reference only.

Which three values will be displayed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate values from the list of values to the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

 

QUESTION 11
You are interviewing for a job as a Java developer.
You are presented with the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.

You need to evaluate what happens when the code runs.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 12
You write the following Java program for Munson
Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/java/java_try_catch.asp

QUESTION 13
You have the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only.

The code does not compile.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the action is required to resolve the compilation error. Otherwise,
select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/accesscontrol.html

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Microsoft 98-349 exam questions and answers online practice test from Lead4Pass

QUESTION 1
What is the largest single file that you can store on an NTFS file system?
A. 4 TB
B. 8 TB
C. 16 TB
D. 32 GB
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
The Windows Action Center allows you to:
A. Choose options during system startup.
B. View alerts and take appropriate actions to keep Windows running smoothly.
C. View and modify settings of installed programs.
D. Manage the documents in the print queue.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
The purpose of a Public folder is to:
A. share files with only one person on a network.
B. share files with everyone on a network.
C. share files with a selected group of people on a network.
D. back up files to a location on a network.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
After you remove malicious software from an infected computer, the user still experiences problems. When the user
opens the browser, it redirects to compromised websites.
You need to troubleshoot the problem.
Which three areas should you investigate? (Choose three.)
A. The system\\’s hosts file
B. The proxy settings
C. The Windows Action Center
D. The browser\\’s security zone settings
E. The browser\\’s home page setting
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 5
You set up a Web Server for your group project for a Web Development class. You install the Web Server service on
your Windows 10 machine. The Web Server service fails to start even though it is set to automatic.
You need to view other services that may have caused the failure.
Which area on the graphic should you select to accomplish this goal?
Instructions: To answer: select the appropriate object in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 6
Which feature allows you to run applications hosted on network file servers or web servers?
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. Remote Desktop Connection
C. Windows Installer
D. Application Virtualization Client
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which two versions of Windows 7 support the Windows Anytime Upgrade functionality? (Choose two.)
A. Professional
B. Ultimate
C. Enterprise
D. Starter
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 8
Which is the fastest way to ensure that new desktop icons align into straight columns and rows?
A. Right-click Desktop, select Properties, and then click Appearance.
B. Right-click Desktop, select View, and then click Auto arrange icons.
C. Right-click Taskbar, select Tile Vertically, and then click Tile Horizontally.
D. Right-click Desktop and select Refresh.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No, Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 11
Which three of these may be included in a service pack? (Choose three.)
A. A remote servicing of the operating system
B. A reinstallation of the operating system
C. All previously released important and recommended Windows Updates
D. New functionality
E. Fixes for security issues
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 12
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No, Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 13
You need to print a paper to give to your professor. A classmate says you can print to a USB printer, which is connected
to another computer.
You try to add to your printer list and get prompted for a password that you do not know.
Why does adding the printer to your computer require a password?
A. Your User ID is not part of the local Administrators group.
B. Your computer is not part of a domain.
C. Your computer is not on the same network as the printer.
D. Password Protected Sharing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.recoverlostpassword.com/windows-10/how-to-turn-off-password-protected-sharing-inwindows-10.html

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Microsoft 98-383 exam questions and answers online practice test from Lead4Pass

QUESTION 1
You are analyzing the following CSS for an element on a page: background: #0000FF url(“Watermark.png”) repeat-x
right;
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_background-repeat.asp
https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_pos_right.asp

 

QUESTION 2
You need to identify the parts of the CSS box model that define an element’s dimensions.
To answer, drag the appropriate part to the correct area. Each part may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/css/css_boxmodel.asp

 

QUESTION 3
You need to display an image of an HTML5 logo in one of your webpages. If the page renders slowly, the text “HTML
Icon” should display as the image loads. How should you complete the markup? The answer, select the appropriate
markup segments in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/tags/att_img_width.asp

 

QUESTION 4
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://www.xanthir.com/b4U10
https://www.w3.org/Style/Examples/007/units.en.html
https://www.w3schools.com/css/css_font.asp

QUESTION 5
You are defining CSS classes to style text in your HTML document. You need to format section titles to look like the
following example:

Which CSS attributes should you use to define each setting? To answer, drag the appropriate attribute from the column
on the left to its setting on the right. Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Select and Place:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/css/css_font.asp

 

QUESTION 6
You are building a website and want to have three main links called Home, Product Info, and Contact Us. You will
create a hierarchy of page elements and revise the stylesheets.
You want to apply a style to all elements in a document.
Which type selector should you use?
A. +
B. >
C. :
D. *
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/sel_all.asp

 

QUESTION 7
You are creating a website for Northwind Traders appear on the browser tab. There will also be a paragraph that greets
users to the site.
You need to crate the structure of the website.
In which order should you arrange the markup segments to develop the solution? To answer, move all markup
segments from the list of markup segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/howto/howto_make_a_website.asp

 

QUESTION 8
You are creating an HTML page that displays a how-to guide for a card game. You want to use the browser’s default
style sheet. You need to display the following content:

How should you complete the markup? To answer, drag the appropriate HTML elements to the correct locations. Each
element may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/tags/tag_hn.asp https://www.w3schools.com/tags/tag_hr.asp

QUESTION 9
You are designing a webpage for your company. You want to display an image named contoso.png on the page. If the
user’s Internet connection is slow, or if the user is visually impaired, you want the text Contoso Logo to be displayed or
read aloud.
How should you complete the markup? To answer, select the appropriate markup segments in the answer area.
Hot Area:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/tags/default.asp

 

QUESTION 10
You are creating an HTML document that displays a list of news articles.
The list has the following requirements:
Each article must be its own semantic block.
Each article must have a headline.
Each article must have a section that contains its content.
For browsers that support the feature, the content must be hidden until the user clicks to reveal it.
The following shows how the article displays when the article content is hidden:

The following shows how the article displays when the article content is displayed:

You need to create the markup for an article.
How should you complete the markup? To answer, select the appropriate markup segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/tags/tag_details.asp https://www.w3schools.com/tags/tag_article.asp

 

QUESTION 11
For each of the following markup segments, select Yes if the HTML element belongs in the head block. Otherwise,
select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/tags/tag_head.asp

 

QUESTION 12
Which CSS property is used to draw a line over text, through text, or under text?
A. font-family
B. font-style
C. text-overflow
D. text-decoration
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_text_text-decoration.asp

 

QUESTION 13
You are analyzing a form that sends multiline comments to another page on the Internet. The following is the form\\’s
markup:

No data is sent when the form is submitted.
You need to solve this problem so that the data in the text box is submitted.
What should you do?
A. Replace the textarea element with an input element.
B. Set the name attribute of the textarea element.
C. Change the value of the method attribute to get.
D. Set the id attribute of the form element.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://www.w3schools.com/tags/att_form_action.asp

---

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Microsoft 98-375 exam questions and answers online practice test from Lead4Pass

QUESTION 1
Match the HTML5 input attributes to the corresponding descriptions. (To answer, drag the appropriate attribute from the
column on the left to its description on the right. Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each
correct match is worth one point.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 2
Which HTML5 tag is used to display text with a fixed-width font and preserves both spaces and line breaks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.
ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process.
You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an object of the Web Storage
specification that is designed for scenarios where the user is carrying out a single transaction.
Which of the following is the object being discussed?
A. foreignStorage
B. externalStorage
C. localStorage
D. sessionStorage
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Your HTML5 code includes this code segment:

Which JavaScript code fragment will determine that a visitor has selected the “Chocolate” radio button?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which attribute prefills a default value for an input element in HTML5?
A. name
B. placeholder
C. autocomplete
D. required
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
When content from a flow is loaded into a region, overflowed content:
A. attempts to fit into the region by auto-adjusting the styles.
B. continues into the next region.
C. is truncated and an error flag is set.
D. is buffered for download.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.
You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing a touch event that fires when the
application identifies more touches than it can process.
Which of the following is the event in question?
A. The touchleave event.
B. The touchcancel event.
C. The touchmove event.
D. The touchend event.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.
ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process.
You are developing a page that includes an image that should be displayed to the right of the region. Text should be
wrapped around the top, left, and bottom of the image. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of the display:right property.
B. You should consider making use of the float:right property.
C. You should consider making use of the position:right property.
D. You should consider making use of the vertical-align:right property.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.
You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing a touch event that fires when the
lifts a finger from the device\\’s touch zone.
Which of the following is the event in question?
A. The touchleave event.
B. The touchcancel event.
C. The touchmove event.
D. The touchend event.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
In CSS, the flow-into property deposits:
A. the flow into the content.
B. the regions into a flow.
C. the flow into the regions.
D. content into the flow.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.
You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an HTML5 attribute that identifies
the cursor position when accessing a form initially.
Which of the following is the attribute being discussed?
A. The autofocus attribute.
B. The focusOffset attribute.
C. The focusNode attribute.
D. The autocomplete attribute.
E. The hideFocus attribute.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Match the HTML5 elements to the corresponding functions. (To answer, drag the appropriate HTML5 element from the
column on the left to its function on the right. Each HTML5 element may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Each correct match is worth one point.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 13
Which two events are supported on touch devices? (Choose two.)
A. click
B. touchstart
C. selection
D. drag
Correct Answer: AB

---

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Microsoft 98-368 exam questions and answers online practice test from Lead4Pass

QUESTION 1
Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

* Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer
network, such as secure connections to websites.
* SSL is used for encryption but not for authentication.
* There is SSL for the web server, but the client does not have a SSL certificate.
SSL Certificates are small data files that digitally bind a cryptographic key to an organization details.
When installed on a web server, it activates the padlock and the https protocol (over port 443) and allows secure
connections from a web server to a browser.
Reference: https://www.globalsign.com/en/ssl-information-center/what-is-an-ssl-certificate/

 

QUESTION 2
The president of your university asks you to set up a service website for students who live in dorms. The website\\’s
official launch date is in two days, and you do not have the resources needed to set up the server infrastructure and
develop
the system.
You need a cloud-based solution than can have the servers and storage available in two days.
Which Microsoft cloud solution achieves this goal?
A. Microsoft Intune
B. Microsoft Azure
C. Achieve Directory
D. Microsoft OneDrive
Correct Answer: B
Microsoft Azure is a cloud computing platform and infrastructure, created by Microsoft, for building, deploying and
managing applications and services through a global network of Microsoft-managed datacenters. Microsoft Azure
services include: Websites: High density hosting of websites.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsoft_Azure#Services

 

QUESTION 3
You are setting up the networking for a single-site motel. For three different classes of users, you need to specify the
most privileged network segment each can access.
Match each network to the class of users that cam access it.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate network from the column of the left to the class of users on the right. Each
network may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

* Guest have only public access.
* Only the Employees have access to the private network.
* An extranet is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely
share part of a business\\’s information or operations with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extranet

 

QUESTION 4
Your sister is taking a video editing class at school. She purchased a 2-TB USB hard drive to store video files. She
wants to connect it to her Windows 10 computer at home. Video file will exceed 5 GB in size.
You need to prepare the new hard drive by formatting it with the appropriate file system.
Which file system should you choose?
A. FAT
B. HFS
C. NTFS
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C
References: https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/windows_7-files/what-is-the-maximum-file-size-fatfat32-ntfs-file/1663db6b-490e-4021-9e36-f7a6976ac0c0

 

QUESTION 5
Your university has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) infrastructure. All domain controllers run Windows
Server 2016.
You are responsible for the computer lab and must join all computers to the domain. The lab computers run Microsoft
Windows 10 Pro.
Which Windows Settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

https://www.groovypost.com/howto/join-a-windows-10-client-domain/

 

QUESTION 6
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12438/windows-10-storage-spaces

 

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Windows Server Active Directory enables single sign-on without the need for additional services, which simplifies user
access to thousands of cloud applications on Windows, Mac, and iOS devices.
Review the underlined text, if it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Microsoft Account
C. Active Directory Federation Services
D. Azure Active Directory
Correct Answer: D
Azure Active Directory is a comprehensive identity and access management cloud solution that provides a robust set of
capabilities to manage users and groups. Azure Active Directory enables single sign-on to simplify user access to
thousands of cloud applications from Windows, Mac, Android and iOS devices.
References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/active-directory/

 

QUESTION 8
You are using dual monitors on a Windows 8.1 computer. You want to move system tray to the secondary monitor.
Which Display option in Control Panel should you select?
A. Make this my main display
B. Landscape orientation
C. PC Screen only
D. Extend desktop to this display
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
You are trying to access a file in a folder that is located on a Windows 10 computer. You are accessing the file over the
network from a second computer. You have the following permissions:
NTFS: Full Control
Share: Read Only
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

https://www.howtogeek.com/72718/how-to-understand-those-confusing-windows-7-fileshare-permissions/

 

QUESTION 10
Which is a feature Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)?
A. manages Digital Rights Media (DRM) for digital media
B. provides a permissions system that works with any cloud-based storage solution
C. manages share and file permissions on all servers in enterprise
D. allow users to define who can open, modify, print, or forward a document
Correct Answer: D
Windows Rights Management Services (also called Rights Management Services, Active Directory Rights Management
Services or RMS) is a form of Information Rights Management used on Microsoft Windows that uses encryption and a
form of selective functionality denial for limiting access to documents such as corporate e-mail, Word documents, and
web pages, and the operations authorized users can perform on them. Companies can use this technology to encrypt
information stored in such document formats, and through policies embedded in the documents, prevent the protected
content from being decrypted except by specified people or groups, in certain environments, under certain conditions,
and for certain periods of time.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Active_Directory_Rights_Management_Services

 

QUESTION 11
Match each Microsoft cloud service to the feature it provides.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate Microsoft cloud service from the column of the left to its feature on the
right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

* Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines allow you to deploy a wide range of computing solutions in an agile way. With Virtual
Machines, you can deploy nearly instantaneously and you pay only by the minute.
* Present a document online using Lync
If you have Lync installed, you can present a document in an online conversation or meeting, work with other people on
it in real time, and even let someone else take control of it.
* A library is a collection of files. In SharePoint, a library is a type of list. Each file is a content item.
Libraries have extra features, such as synchronisation, viewing/editing, or managing files.

 

QUESTION 12
When you copy a file from one NTFS file system partition to a different NTFS partition, what happens to the file
permissions of the copied file?
A. They are the combined permissions of the original file and destination folder
B. They inherit the permissions of the destination folder
C. They remain the same as the original
D. They are removed, and only the creator is given full control
Correct Answer: B
When you copy a protected file to a folder on the same, or a different volume, it inherits the permissions of the target
directory.
Reference: http://www.ntfs.com/ntfs-permissions-files-moving.htm

 

QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The “ExFAT” file system can automatically verify and auto correct data to avoid file system errors.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. NTFS
C. FAT32
D. ReFS
Correct Answer: D
Resilient File System (ReFS) is a Microsoft proprietary file system introduced with Windows Server 2012 with the intent
of becoming the “next generation” file system after NTFS. ReFS key design advantages are intended to include
automatic
integrity checking and data scrubbing, removing the need for chkdsk and protecting against data degradation.
Incorrect answers:
Not A: exFAT (Extended File Allocation Table) is a Microsoft file system optimized for flash drives. exFAT can be used
where the NTFS file system is not a feasible solution (due to data structure overhead), or where the file size limit of the
standard FAT32 file system is unacceptable.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ReFS

---

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Microsoft 98-367 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You have a new computer and want to restrict other people from replacing the operating system.
Which action prevents a user from installing an alternate operating system by using physical media if the user has
physical media if the user has physical access to the computer?
A. installing drive-level encryption
B. disabling removable devices and drives
C. password protecting the computer BIOS
D. removing the user from the administrators group
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a/an:
A. Intrusion Prevention System that filters unauthorized communications in the enterprise network
B. virtual communication method that stores data transmitted in a private environment
C. tunnel that prevents information that passes through it from being modified or stolen
D. perimeter network that contains secure virtual servers
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections?
A. VPN
B. NTFS
C. RADIUS
D. Single Sign-On
Correct Answer: C
RADIUS is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. RADIUS is a client/server
protocol that runs in the application layer, using UDP as transport. The Remote Access Server, the Virtual Private
Network server, the Network switch with port-based authentication, and the Network Access Server are all gateways
that control access to the network, and all have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS
server. The RADIUS server is usually a background process running on a UNIX or Windows NT machine. RADIUS
serves three functions: To authenticate users or devices before granting them access to a network To authorize those
users or devices for certain network services To account for usage of those services Answer: D is incorrect. Single SignOn is an approach which involves a server that acts as an online certificate authority within a single sign-on system. A
single sign-on server will issue digital certificates into the client system, but never stores them. Users can execute
programs, etc. with the temporary certificate. It is common to find this solution variety with x.509-based certificates.
Answer: B is incorrect. NTFS is a high-performance file system proprietary to Microsoft. NTFS supports file-level
security, compression, and auditing. It also supports large volumes and powerful storage solution such as RAID. The
latest feature of NTFS is its ability to encrypt files and folders to protect sensitive data. Answer: A is incorrect. A virtual
private network (VPN) is a form of wide area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long
physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the
Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization\\’s network. A virtual
private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one
organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost. A
VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and
tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the
sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is
not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data, but also the originating and
receiving network addresses.

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following contains a tree of domain names?
A. Domain name space
B. Domain name formulation
C. Domain Name System
D. Authoritative name server
Correct Answer: A
Domain name space consists of a tree of domain names. Each node or leaf in the tree has zero or more resource
records, which hold information associated with the domain name. The tree sub- divides into zones starting at the root
zone.
Answer: B is incorrect. The definitive descriptions of the rules for forming domain names appear in RFC 1035, RFC
1123, and RFC 2181. A domain name consists of one or more parts, technically called labels that are conventionally
concatenated, and delimited by dots.
Answer: C is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) is a distributed hierarchical naming system for computers,
services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. It associates various information with
domain names
assigned to each of the participants.
Answer: D is incorrect. An authoritative name server is a name server that gives answers that have been configured by
an original source, for example, the domain administrator or by dynamic DNS methods, in contrast to the answers that
were obtained via a regular DNS query to one more name server. An authoritative-only name server only returns
answers to the queries about domain names that have been specifically configured by the administrator.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following viruses cannot be detected by the signature-based antivirus?
A. Polymorphic
B. MBR virus
C. Boot sector
D. Macro
Correct Answer: A
A polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. This virus is very complicated
and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file in the disk, it loads the virus into the RAM. The new virus starts
making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. The mutation engine of the polymorphic virus
generates a new encrypted code, thus changing the signature of the virus. Therefore, polymorphic viruses cannot be
detected by signature-based antivirus. Answer: B is incorrect. A Master boot record (MBR) virus replaces the boot
sector data with its own malicious code. Every time when the computer starts up, the boot sector virus executes. It can
then generate activity that is either annoying (system will play sounds at certain times) or destructive (erase the hard
drive of the system). Because the code in the Master Boot Record executes before any operating system is started, no
operating system can detect or recover from corruption of the Master Boot Record.
Answer: D is incorrect. A macro virus is a virus that consists of a macro code which infects the system. A Macro virus
can infect a system rapidly. Since this virus has VB event handlers, it is dynamic in nature and displays random
activation. The victim has only to open a file having a macro virus in order to infect the system with the virus. DMV,
Nuclear, and Word Concept are some good examples of macro viruses. Answer: C is incorrect. A boot sector virus
infects the master boot files of the hard disk or floppy disk. Boot record programs are responsible for booting the
operating system and the boot sector virus copies these programs into another part of the hard disk or overwrites these
files. Therefore, when the floppy or the hard disk boots, the virus infects the computer.

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are related to the
operating system and installed software?
A. DNS dynamic update
B. Windows Software Update Services
C. Read-Only domain controller (RODC)
D. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
Correct Answer: D
Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are
related to the operating system and installed software Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a software tool of
Microsoft to determine security state by assessing missing security updates and less- secure security settings within
Microsoft Windows, Windows components such as Internet Explorer, IIS web server, and products Microsoft SQL
Server,
and Microsoft Office macro settings. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) includes a graphical and command
line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems.
Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an add- on component of Windows Server 2008. It
provides functionality to a server to run as a Windows Update server in a Windows network environment.
Administrators
can configure a WSUS server as the only server to download updates from Windows site, and configure other
computers on the network to use the server as the source of update files. This will save lots of bandwidth as each
computer will not
download updates individually. WSUS 3.0 SP1 is the only version of WSUS that can be installed on Windows Server
2008. Earlier versions of WSUS cannot be installed on a server running Windows Server 2008.
Answer: C is incorrect. Read-only Domain Controller (RODC) is a domain controller that hosts the read-only partition of
the Active Directory database. RODC was developed by Microsoft typically to be deployed in a branch office
environment.
RODC is a good option to enhance security by placing it in a location where physical security is poor. RODC can also
be placed at locations having relatively few users and a poor network bandwidth to the main site. As only the read-only
partition of the Active Directory database is hosted by RODC, a little local IT knowledge is required to maintain it.
Answer: A is incorrect. DNS dynamic update is used to enable DNS client computers for registering and dynamically
updating their resource records with a DNS server whenever any modification or change has been taken place. It is
used to
update the DNS client computers with the reflecting changes.

 

QUESTION 7
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. You plan to
connect your company\\’s LAN to the Internet. You are concerned about the security of your network and want to protect
it against external access and misuse. Which device will you install between your LAN and the Internet to accomplish
this?
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 8
What are three examples of factors required for multi-factor authentication? (Choose three.)
A. a username
B. a smart card
C. a fingerprint
D. a password challenge question
E. a pin number
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-authentication-methods

 

QUESTION 9
Physically securing servers prevents:
A. Theft
B. Compromise of the certificate chain
C. Man-in-the middle attacks
D. Denial of Service attacks
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following actions should be taken so that the computer requires confirmation before installing an ActiveX
component?
A. Configuring a firewall on the network
B. Configuring the settings on the Web Browser
C. Installing an anti-virus software
D. Configuring DMZ on the network
Correct Answer: B
Configuring the settings on the Web browser will enable a computer to ask for confirmation before installing an ActiveX
component. This will enable users to prevent the download of potentially unsafe controls onto the computer. ActiveX
controls are software components that can be integrated into Web pages and applications, within a computer or among
computers in a network, to reuse the functionality. Reusability of controls reduces development time of applications and
improves program interfaces.
They enhance the Web pages with formatting features and animation. ActiveX controls can be used in applications
written in different programming languages that recognize Microsoft\\’s Component Object Model (COM). These
controls
always run in a container. ActiveX controls simplify and automate the authoring tasks, display data, and add functionality
to Web pages.
Answer: A and D are incorrect. Configuring a firewall or DMZ will not help in accomplishing the task.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a set of rules that control the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Access control list
C. Group Policy
D. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: C
Group Policy is a feature of the Microsoft Windows NT family of operating systems. It is a set of rules, which control the
working environment of user accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy provides the centralized management and
configuration of operating systems, applications, and users\\’ settings in an Active Directory environment. Group Policy
is often used to restrict certain actions that may pose potential security risks. For example, block access to the Task
Manager, restrict access to certain folders, disable the downloading of executable files, and so on. As part of
Microsoft\\’s IntelliMirror technologies, Group Policy aims to reduce the cost of supporting users. IntelliMirror
technologies relate to the management of disconnected machines or roaming users and include roaming user profiles,
folde redirection, and offline files.

Answer: A is incorrect. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for
an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through
authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an
object that is marked as “secret”, he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the
appropriate permission. Answer: D is incorrect. An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is used to detect unauthorized
attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet. It can detect several
types of attacks and malicious behaviors that can compromise the security of a network and computers. This includes
network attacks against vulnerable services, unauthorized logins, and access to sensitive data, and malware (e.g.
viruses, worms, etc.). An IDS also detects attacks that originate from within a system. In most cases, an IDS has three
main components: Sensors, Console, and Engine. Sensors generate security events. A console is used to alert and
control sensors and to monitor events. An engine is used to record events and to generate security alerts based on
received security events. In many IDS implementations, these three components are combined into a single device.
Basically, the following two types of IDS are used: Network-based IDS Host-based IDS Answer: B is incorrect. Access
control list (ACL) is a rule list containing access control entries. It is used to allow or deny access to network resources.
ACL can be implemented on network users and network devices such as routers and firewalls. Routers and firewalls
use ACL to determine which packets should be forwarded or dropped.

 

QUESTION 12
Humongous Insurance needs to set up a domain controller in a branch office. Unfortunately, the server cannot be
sufficiently secured from access by employees in that office, so the company is installing a Primary Domain Controller.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Backup Domain Controller
C. Active Directory Server
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Your supervisor asks you to review file permission settings on the application.bat file. You need to report which file
system the file is on and the type of permission the file has. You review the application Properties dialog box shown in
the following image:

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

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Microsoft 98-365 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network
environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest network.
You are configuring a new computer. You want to configure the computer\\’s hard disk as a dynamic disk.
Which of the following command-line tools will you use to convert a hard disk from basic to dynamic?
A. NTDSUTIL
B. DISKPART
C. FDISK
D. FSUTIL
Correct Answer: B
In order to accomplish the task, you will have to use the DISKPART command-line utility.
A dynamic disk is a physical disk, which supports volumes that span multiple disks such as striped volume, RAID- 5
volume, etc. A dynamic disk uses a hidden database to track information about dynamic volumes on the disk and other
dynamic disks in the computer. Dynamic disks can be made by converting the basic disks. This can be done by using
Disk Management or the DISKPART command-line utility. When a basic disk is converted into a dynamic disk, all
existing basic volumes become dynamic volumes.

 

QUESTION 2
What technology is used to standardize the Windows environment on all client computers?
A. Group Policy
B. Registry
C. Bindery
D. DMZ
Correct Answer: A
One of Active Directory\\’s most powerful features is Group Policy, which controls the working environment for user
accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy provides centralized management and configuration of operating
systems, applications, and user settings in an Active Directory environment.

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following protocols do iSCSI fabrics use to provide discoverability and partitioning of resources?
A. SCSI
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. iSNS
Correct Answer: D
Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) is a protocol that allows automated discovery, management, and configuration of
iSCSI and Fibre Channel devices (using iFCP gateways) on a TCP/IP network. iSNS provides management services
similar to those found in Fibre Channel networks, allowing a standard IP network to operate in much the same way that
a Fibre Channel storage area network does. Because iSNS is able to emulate Fibre Channel fabric services and
manage both iSCSI and Fibre Channel devices, an iSNS server can be used as a consolidated configuration point for
an entire storage network.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated
Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk
drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives
simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
B: The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission
on the Internet. SSL has recently been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses
a program layer located between the Internet\\’s Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol
(TCP) layers. URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:.
C: Transport Layer Security is a standard protocol used to secure Web communications on the Internet or intranets by
means of encryption. With the help of TLS, clients can authenticate servers or servers can authenticate clients. TLS is
the latest version of the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol.

 

QUESTION 4
You manage the servers for the School of Business at your university. The school has a Hyper-V server that runs three
virtual machines (VMs). Each VM runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to apply the latest Windows server updates to each of the VMs. You need to be able to revert the servers
back to their original state before applying the updates.
Which Microsoft Virtualization feature should you use?
A. Live Migration
B. Checkpoints
C. VHD Virtual Hard Disks
D. Failover Cluster
Correct Answer: B
Checkpoints (formerly called snapshots) provide a fast and easy way to revert the virtual machine to a previous state.

QUESTION 5
Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two.)
A. Shared storage
B. Failover
C. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D. Shared services
Correct Answer: BC
The difference between NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
An NLB array allows load to be spread NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
A failover cluster provides high availability and redundancy, but doesn\\’t spread the load. Only one server is live at any
time, but the clustered application(s) can be moved to the other server very quickly.

 

QUESTION 6
What is the default port used by iSCSI?
A. 8080
B. 3128
C. 3260
D. 9000
Correct Answer: C
Internet Small Computing System Interface (iSCSI) is an Internet Protocol (IP) – based storage networking standard for
linking data storage facilities. iSCSI allows clients to send SCSI commands over a TCP/IP network using TCP port
3260.

 

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum share permission needed to modify files and its attributes?
A. Full Control
B. Change
C. Write
D. Write
Correct Answer: B
The Change permission give users the Read permission and the additional capability to create files and subfolders,
modify files, change attributes on files and subfolders, and delete files and subfolders.

 

QUESTION 8
To protect a server in case of a blackout, you should use a/an:
A. Uninterruptible Power Supply.
B. Dedicated surge protector.
C. Power Supply Unit.
D. Redundant power supply.
E. Hot-swappable power supply.
F. Line conditioner.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What is used to grant access to objects such as NTFS files or Active Directory user accounts?
A. right
B. permission
C. certificate
D. template
Correct Answer: B
Permissions defined as the type of access granted to objects such as NTFS files and folders.

 

QUESTION 10
The best method to data recovery is:
A. backup
B. DFS
C. RAID
D. spare drives
Correct Answer: A
A backup, or the process of backing up, refers to making copies of data so that these copies can be used to restore the
original after a data-loss event. They can be used to restore entire systems following a disaster or to restore small file
sets that were accidentally deleted or corrupted.

 

QUESTION 11
The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2016 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk
space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server, you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2016: one to
act as a web server and one to act as a database server.
Which Windows Server 2016 role or feature provides this capability?
A. Windows Deployment Services
B. Hyper-V
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Windows Internal Database
Correct Answer: B
Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems.
Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the
client editions of Windows NT. A server computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual
machines to
one or more networks.

 

QUESTION 12
Which technology provides both e-mail and database services?
A. Windows Server Enterprise Edition
B. Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Windows Server Essentials
D. Microsoft Project Server
Correct Answer: C
Windows Server Essentials (formerly Windows Small Business Server or SBS) is an integrated server suite from
Microsoft designed for running network infrastructure (both intranet management and Internet access) of small and
midsize businesses having no more than 25 users or 50 devices. Application server technologies are tightly integrated
to provide and offer management benefits such as integrated setup, enhanced monitoring, Remote Web Workplace, a
unified management console, and remote access.

QUESTION 13
What type of driver is tested and includes a digital certificate?
A. published
B. certified
C. compliant
D. signed
Correct Answer: D
A signed device driver includes a digital signature, which is an electronic security mark that can indicate the software
publisher and information that can show whether a driver has been altered. When Microsoft signs it, the driver has been thoroughly tested to ensure that it will not cause problems with the system\\’s reliability or cause a security problem.

---

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Microsoft 98-364 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road (RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL, Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data: You execute the following statement: INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234,
36)

What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You have two database tables as defined below. The first table contains information about students. The second table
contains information about courses. The two tables are related by CourseID.

Match the CourseName to the StudentName.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate CourseName from the column on the left to its StudentName on the right.
Each CourseName may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 3
You execute the following statement:
SELECT EmployeeID, FirstName, DepartmentName FROM Employee, Department
This type of operation is called a/an:
A. Intersection
B. Outer join
C. Equi-join
D. Cartesian product
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Your class project requires that you help a charity set up a website.
The website collects information about volunteers. Each volunteer record must be uniquely identified.
The following information is stored for each volunteer:
Given name
Surname
Date of birth
Phone number
Photo
You need to create a table to meet the requirements.
Match the Structured Query Language SQL statements to the SQL query.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate SQL statement from the column on the left to its place in the SQL query
on the right. Each SQL statement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one
point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 5
What defines the amount of storage space that is allocated to a value in a column?
A. format
B. key
C. data type
D. validator
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
You have two tables. Each table has three rows.
How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 8
You have a database table that contains the following columns:

You must insert the following record into the table: Which two Structured Query Language (SQL) statements can you
use? (Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 9
The following graphic shows the components of a SQL Server application. You access the SQL Server application
through Internet Explorer.

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 10
You work at a coffee shop. They ask you to set up a website that stores charges on purchases.
You need to recommend a data type in a database table to run financial functions against the charged amounts.
Which data type should you recommend?
A. Money
B. Bit
C. Varchar
D. Binary
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
You have a table named Product that contains one million rows.
You need to search for product information in the Product table by using the product\\’s unique ID.
What will make this type of search more efficient?
A. A cursor
B. A subquery
C. A trigger
D. An index
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A view can be used to ensure referential integrity.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct
A. No change is needed.
B. Save an extra copy of data stored in a separate table.
C. Limit access to specific rows or columns of data in a table.
D. Save historical data before deleting it from the base table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You develop a database to store data about textbooks. The data must be stored to process at a later time. Which
database object should you use to store the data?
A. View
B. Table
C. Function
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D

---

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Microsoft 98-361 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Converting a value type to a reference type in an object is called boxing.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. unboxing
C. interfacing
D. mapping
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You are reviewing the following code that saves uploaded images.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.\\’
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 3
You are creating a database for a student directory. The Students table contains the following fields:

Which statement will retrieve only the first name, last name, and telephone number for every student listed in the
directory?

A. B. C. D. E.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three phrases are advantages of connection pooling? (Choose three.)
A. reduces load on the server
B. improved performance
C. reduces time to create a connection
D. requires no configuration
E. improved scalability
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 5
Which term is used to describe small units of text that are stored on a client computer and retrieved to maintain state?
A. trace
B. cross-page post
C. cookie
D. server transfer
Correct Answer: C
HTTP is a stateless protocol. This means that user data is not persisted from one Web page to the next in a Web site.
One way to maintain state is through the use of cookies. Cookies store a set of user specific information, such as a
reference identifier for a database record that holds customer information.

QUESTION 6
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When a base class declares a method as virtual, the method is hidden from implementation bv a derived class.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. can be overridden with its own implementation by a derived class
C. must be overridden in any non-abstract class that directly inherits from that class
D. cannot be overridden with its own implementation by a derived class
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Unit testing is the final set of tests that must be completed before a feature or product can be considered finished.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. User acceptance
C. System
D. Integration
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You need to debug a Windows Service application by using breakpoints.
What should you do?
A. Write all events to an event log.
B. Set the Windows Service status to Paused.
C. Implement the Console.WriteLine method throughout the Windows Service.
D. use the Attach to Process menu in Microsoft Visual Studio.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
When a web service is referenced from a client application in Microsoft Visual Studio, which two items are created?
(Choose two.)
A. a stub
B. a.wsdl file
C. a proxy
D. a .disco file
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 11
You need to evaluate the following expression:
(A>B) AND (CB is false.

 

QUESTION 12
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. The Response.Redirect method
is used to transfer processing of the current page to a new page, and then return processing back to the calling page
once processing of the new page has completed.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Server.Transfer method
C. Server.Execute method
D. meta http-equiv=”refresh” tag
Correct Answer: C

---

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The latest updated Microsoft 98-366 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Practice Test is free to share from Lead4Pass (Q1-Q12)

QUESTION 1
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 2
How many bits are there in an Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Correct Answer: C
IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, allowing 2**128, or approximately 3.4? 0**38 addresses, or more than 7.9? 0**28 times as
many as IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses

 

QUESTION 3
You cannot get to any site on the Internet or on the school\\’s intranet. Your school uses DHCP. You check your network
settings, which are configured as shown in the following image:

You need to change the settings to access websites.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

 

QUESTION 4
You run the ipconfig command. The output is shown in the following image:

From these settings, you can tell that the computer:
A. Will have limited Internet access
B. Will have full Internet access
C. Will was not able to access the Internet
D. Will was not able to access the local network
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which Microsoft network service can you use to establish a connection to a corporate LAN without any user action?
A. VPN
B. Remote Desktop
C. DirectAccess
D. Nap
Correct Answer: C
DirectAccess allows remote users to securely access internal network file shares, Web sites, and applications without
connecting to a virtual private network (VPN). An internal network is also known as a private network or intranet.
DirectAccess establishes bi-directional connectivity with an internal network every time a DirectAccess-enabled computer connects to the Internet, even before the user logs on. Users never have to think about connecting to the
internal network and IT administrators can manage remote computers outside the office, even when the computers are
not connected to the VPN.

 

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The loopback address of your computer is “127.0.0.1”.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select \\’ No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. 10.0.1.1
B. 169.254.0.5
C. 192168.1.1
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D
127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 loopback address.

 

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A network that separates an organization\\’s private network from a public network is an extranet.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. a perimeter
B. an intranet
C. the Internet
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which metric does Routing Information Protocol (RIP) use to determine the least costly route?
A. Delay
B. Host ID
C. Hop count
D. Interface
Correct Answer: C
RIP uses a single routing metric (hop count) to measure the distance between the source and a destination network.

 

QUESTION 9
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

 

QUESTION 10
Where in the diagram is a T3 connection possible? (To answer, select the appropriate connection in the diagram in the
answer area.)
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 11
You need to divide a network into three subnets.
Which device should you use?
A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Segmenter
Correct Answer: C
You can use a router to divide your network into subnets.

 

QUESTION 12
A VPN is a/an:
A. Encrypted connection across the Internet.
B. Virtual network within your local area network (LAN).
C. Communication tunnel between VLANs.
D. Personal network for your use only.
Correct Answer: A
VPN is a network that is constructed by using public wires — usually the Internet — to connect to a private network, such
as a company\\’s internal network.
There are a number of systems that enable you to create networks using the Internet as the medium for transporting
data. These systems use encryption and other security mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access
the network and that the data cannot be intercepted.

 

QUESTION 13
In which physical network topology is each computer connected to a central point?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Bus
Correct Answer: A
In local area networks with a star topology, each network host is connected to a central hub with a point-to-point
connection.

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The latest updated Microsoft 98-388 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Practice Test is free to share from Lead4Pass (Q1-Q12)

QUESTION 1
You work for Woodgrove Bank as a Java programmer.
You need to evaluate the following class. Line numbers are included for reference only.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/constructors.html

 

QUESTION 2
You are creating a Java console application.
You need to read a birthdate entered by the user.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/io/InputStreamReader.html

 

QUESTION 3
You are writing a Java program.
The program must meet the following requirements:
Truncate firstName to its first five characters
Set output to a string that contains the firstName and the number of characters in firstName
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/lang/StringBuilder.html
https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/lang/stringbuilder_substring_end.htm

 

QUESTION 4
You are creating a method that converts a string representation of a number into an actual number.
The numbers passed into the method include whole numbers and fractional numbers.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/data/converting.html

 

QUESTION 5
You write the following Java program for Munson
Correct Answer:

References: https://www.w3schools.com/java/java_try_catch.asp

 

QUESTION 6
You have a Java class named insurance policy.
You need to define a constant data member named RATE. The data member must be accessible by any class without
instantiating the InsurancePolicy class.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct position. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/classvars.html

 

QUESTION 7
You need to evaluate the following Java program. Line numbers are included for reference only.

Which three values will be displayed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate values from the list of values to the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

 

QUESTION 8
You are interviewing for a job as a Java developer.
You are presented with the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.

You need to evaluate what happens when the code runs.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 9
You work as a Java programmer.
You need to convert a numeric String to a primitive double value.
What code segment should you use?
A. Double.valueOf(numberString);
B. double.parseDouble(numberString);
C. String.parseDouble(numberString);
D. Double.parseDouble(numberString);
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.javacodeexamples.com/convert-string-to-primitive-example/140

 

QUESTION 10
You need to evaluate the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 11
References: http://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/java_strings.htm
Your instructor asks you to evaluate four arithmetic code segments.
What is the value of each code segment? To answer, drag the appropriate value from the column on the left to its code
segment on the right. Each data may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 12
Traders hire you to write a Java program to manage account openings. To open a new account, a user must meet one of the following requirements:
be over 65 years old and have a minimum annual income of 10,000
be at least 21 and have an annual income greater than 25,000
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate operator to the correct position. Each operator
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/java_basic_operators.htm

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Fulldumps shares the latest updated Microsoft 98-388 exam exercise questions, 98-388 dumps pdf for free.
All exam questions and answers come from the Lead4pass exam dumps shared part! Lead4pass updates throughout the year and shares a
portion of your exam questions for free to help you understand the exam content and enhance your exam experience!
Get the full Microsoft 98-388 exam dumps questions at: https://www.lead4pass.com/98-388.html (pdf&vce)

ps.
Get free Microsoft 98-388 dumps PDF online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Dzwzy6BGVJEH5Dn-vFPALpuoTL5a8VD_/