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QUESTION 1
What are two ways that Cisco helps customers secure loT deployments? (Choose two.)
A. network analysis
B. secure remote access
C. segmentation and visibility
D. cross-architecture automation
E. limited access points
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?
A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.
B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.
C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.
D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
What are three key benefits of Cisco NGFW? (Choose three.)
A. Reduces throughput
B. Prepares defenses
C. Reduces complexity
D. Identifies anomalous traffic
E. Detects and remediates threats faster
F. Increases traffic latency
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.)
A. application visibility and control
B. security automation
C. contextual awareness
D. device profiling
E. identity-based and device-aware security
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What does Cisco provide via Firepower\\’s simplified, consistent management?
A. Reduced complexity
B. Improved speed to security
C. Reduced downtime
D. Higher value
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is a key feature of Duo?
A. Provides SSL VPN
B. Authenticates user identity for remote access
C. Automates policy creation for IT staff
D. Supports pxGrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two loT environment layers are protected by AMP for Endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Internet/Cloud
B. Control Layer
C. Data Center
D. Access Points
E. Things
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two Cisco products help manage data access policy consistently? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Cloudlock
C. AMPforEndpoints
D. pxGrid
E. Steathwatch
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two loT environment layers are protected by Stealthwatch? (Choose two.)
A. Things
B. Endpoints
C. Internet/Cloud
D. Access Points
E. Control Layer
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which two elements does Tetration provide for security posture and traffic analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Device updates
B. App process information
C. App access control
D. App dependency map
E. Hardware packages
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
For what does ACI provide a single point of support?
A. automation
B. management
C. orchestration
D. visibility
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What are three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Firewalls
B. Advanced Threat
C. Cloud Security
D. Roaming Security
E. loT Security
F. Voice and Collaboration
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
Where do you start to achieve true network visibility?
A. Branches
B. Fabric Level
C. OT
D. IT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Stealthwatch
D. Cisco Security Connector
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: BC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en_ae/products/security/portfolio.html#~stickynav=2

QUESTION 6
Which two benefits of flexible purchasing does Cisco provide? (Choose two.)
A. Simplify the datacenter
B. Meet immediate needs
C. Roll out more solutions
D. Plan for the future
E. Reduce training needs
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose two.)
A. Unresponsive potential customers
B. Overcrowded portfolios
C. Complexity of solution components
D. Fragmented solutions
E. Seller competition
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which two areas require secure access? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow
B. Workspace
C. Workforce
D. Worktable
E. Workloads
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which three products are in Cisco\\’s Web and Email Security portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Meraki
B. ESA
C. Investigate
D. WSA
E. Umbrella
F. CES
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 10
What are two factors that influence customer loT conversations\\’? (Choose two)
A. Maturity
B. Detection
C. Motivation
D. Protection
E. Prevention
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
What are two ways Cisco addresses customers\\’ growing business needs? (Choose two.)
A. multi/hybrid cloud platforms
B. Highly-scalable DC platforms
C. Bulletproof NGFW appliances
D. Consolidated tracking and reporting
E. Multiple solution deployment choices
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
What are two ways Cisco helps customers navigate compliance issues? (Choose two.)
A. Providing identity verification
B. Securing email communications
C. Ensuring all employees have access to all files
D. Removing reporting requirements
E. Removing bureaucratic security tags
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two security areas are provided by Cisco\\’s email solutions? (Choose two.)
A. DNS-Layer Security
B. CTD and Network Analytics
C. Malware Protection
D. Identity Services
E. Cloud App Security
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user
management.
B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a
distributed enterprise.
C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.
D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which are two major security challenges that occur due to the proliferation of users and applications at the branch?
(Choose two.)
A. Increased threat surface area
B. Increased complexity for mitigation
C. Increased complexity for mobility
D. Increased complexity in Omni-channel experience
E. Increase in threat naivety
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\\’s data centers to be fully HIPAA and PCI compliant?
A. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
B. Controller and server-free design
C. Out-of-band control plane
D. Non-existent command-line interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements regarding Cisco\\’s wireless product offerings are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Aironet 3800 is geared for small and medium-size businesses, especially teleworkers.
B. The portfolio of wireless solutions can meet the size of the network and customer requirements.
C. The Cisco Wireless portfolio was built to support on-premises enterprise and business class solutions only.
D. Wireless solutions are the same for on-premises enterprise and business class customers.
E. Cisco Meraki\\’s MR 30H and MR 33 are 802.11AC access points with dedicated security.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Which are two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.)
A. Improve Application Performance
B. Delivered from the cloud
C. Subscription-based model
D. Provides protection when on the VPN
E. Simple manual installation of hardware
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which are the two main features enabled by Catalyst 3650CX and the Cisco Catalyst 2960L in education? (Choose two.)
A. Interactive whiteboard
B. POS/MICROS
C. IP camera
D. Classroom polling
E. Display/E-banner
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which three products are in the Cisco Calling portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Unified Communications Manager
B. Webex Calling
C. Business Edition
D. Skype for Business
E. Mobility Express
F. IP Office
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which are two hyperFlex architectural differentiators? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Fabric Computing
B. Simplified Policy-Based Management
C. Next Gen Consolidated Data platform
D. Pre-integrated UCS Rack and Blades +Cisco HX Data Platform
E. High-density form factor
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which are the two advantages of having Direct Internet Access? (Choose two.)
A. Limits guest Wi-Fi at the branch
B. Secure WAN transport
C. Protects remote employees
D. Threat mitigation techniques
E. Leverage local internet path
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two services are provided by the Cisco 800 series ISR routers? (Choose two.)
A. 100% centralized cloud management
B. Secure remote collaboration
C. Built-in SD-WAN
D. Extending voice to small office and teleworker
E. Unified Threat Management
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express?
A. mDNS Gateway
B. Guest WLAN enhancements
C. Expert View in the WebUI
D. Schedule WLAN
E. CMX Cloud support
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which device is a cloud-managed switch?
A. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350
B. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L
C. Cisco 220/250
D. Cisco 350X/550X
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which TLS version(s) are supported by Webex Teams applications?
A. TLS versions 1.1 and 1.2 only
B. TLS version 1.2 only
C. Webex Teams does not support TLS
D. TLS version 1.0 and 1.1 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement for Control Hub is valid?
A. available to customers with over 10000 paid subscriptions
B. only available to partners
C. free to customers with a paid subscription
D. Cisco internal tool only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers?
A. Salesforce and Sales Connect
B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook
C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal
D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which role within an organization has the privilege to see all messages?
A. Device Administrator
B. Site Administrator
C. Compliance officer role
D. any user
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which platform is Cisco Webex Calling based upon?
A. Broadcloud platform from the recent Cisco acquisition of Broadsoft
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CUCM)
C. Spark Calling platform
D. Business Edition 4000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are two versions of Control Hub? (Choose two.)
A. Standard
B. Vision Insight
C. Platinum
D. Pro Pack
E. Silver
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Webex team natively bring together which two capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Data Center Reports
B. Meetings
C. Project Workspace
D. Network Routing
E. Messaging
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which key benefit of Webex Teams collaboration is valid?
A. Only the moderator of a space is able to use important meeting features
B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance
C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s
D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which company did Cisco partner with for a Webex Widget, which embeds messaging and meetings into the application
page?
A. SAP
B. PegaSystems
C. Ultra-Innovations International
D. Salesforce
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two endpoints allow for whiteboarding and annotating on the screen? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Meeting Server 2000
B. Cisco IP Phone
C. DX 80
D. Cisco IP Conference Phone
E. Webex Board
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid?
A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher
B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher
C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data
classified as “confidential”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners?
A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders
B. quote and order resale product only
C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers
D. ordering tool for Distributors only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid?
A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan.
B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased.
C. SWSS is only for data center customers.
D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Customers are investing in uncompromised security of which 3 areas?
A. WAN, Cloud, Mobility
B. Cloud, Mobility and LAN
C. DC, Access and WAN
D. WAN, LAN, Cloud
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/software/one-software/one-overviewdeck.pdf

QUESTION 2
With Crisco ONE, what happens when a customer refreshes hardware?
A. The customer can refresh or go to the next tier of hardware and port or upgrade software at no additional charge
B. The customer must purchase entirely new software licenses
C. The customer can refresh hardware in the same tier and port software at no charge, or go to the next tier of hardware
and just pay the difference for their software
D. The customer can refresh hardware in the same her and port software at no charge but must purchase new licenses
for the next tier of hardware
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which phrase best describes the Cisco DX series?
A. a mobile endpoint solution designed to connect teams at any time, in any place
B. an all-in-one desktop collaboration device with an intuitive touchscreen
C. a flexible and scalable platform for video-conferencing rooms
D. a service solution that offers business messaging, calling, and persistent meeting spaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Cisco is positioning itself to recognize the greater value and superior differentiation and deliver better business outcomes for
its customers. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. They aim to price models in a more user-centric approach
B. They aim to provide flexible approaches to service offerings
C. They aim to provide more solution-based offerings
D. They aim to adopt personalized offerings to their customers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco mobile endpoint application provides instant messaging, voice and video calls, voice messaging, desktop
sharing, conferencing, and presence?
A. Cisco Expressway
B. Cisco Jabber
C. Cisco Webex Teams
D. Cisco TelePresence MX
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Cisco DNA Analytics and Assurance allow users to automate network performance management in all of the following
ways. Which is not true?
A. Simplify management
B. Gain network visibility
C. Save time, solve problems
D. Turn insights into
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are features of the Cisco Firepower NGFW?
A. unified management
B. fully integrated
C. threat-focused
D. cloud-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco network administration product enables the creation and enforcement of security and access policies for a
company\\’s connected endpoint devices
A. Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise
B. Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Cisco TrustSec technology uses software-defined segmentation to simplify the provisioning of network access,
accelerate security operations, and consistently enforce policy anywhere in the network. Which of the following is not a
feature and benefit?
A. Apply policies across the network
B. Increased risks
C. Lower operational expenses
D. Streamline compliance
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/solution-overview-c22-737173.html

QUESTION 10
Cisco has long been the world\\’s dominant supplier of computer networking products, systems, and services. Which of
the following is not included in Cisco\\’s current product lines?
A. LAN
B. Routers
C. Application Delivery Controllers
D. Switches
E. WAN
Correct Answer: C
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_delivery_controller

QUESTION 11
Security attacks are stealthier than ever. Pervasive protection is needed. When should it be implemented?
A. All of the above
B. After the attack
C. During the attack
D. Before the attack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following describes the NFV ENCS Virtualized branch?
A. a cloud-delivered overlay WAN architecture that facilitates digital and cloud transformation for enterprises
B. a hybrid platform that combines the benefits of a traditional router and a traditional server to offer the same
functionality with a smaller infrastructure footprint
C. a security application that mitigates vulnerabilities to offer branch and consumers protection where they need it most
D. a network device that mathematically verifies the entire network for the correctness
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How is a business outcome defined?
A. a strategy that sets out sales targets and tactics for the business
B. a measurable result of an activity or process within the business
C. a process of estimating future sales
D. a plan that positions a company\\’s brand or product to gain a competitive advantage
Correct Answer: D

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^{[Exam details]} Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR 350-901) – website: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/devcor-350-901.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. The self-service Webex Teams bot is failing when many users attempt to interact with
it at the same time. Drag and drop the code snippets from the left onto the correct item numbers on the right that match
the missing sections in the exhibit to complete this code to handle this high-load situation.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit above and click on the resource tabs in the top left corner to view resources to help with this
question.

A developer is creating a Python script that will use the Webex Teams REST API to automatically create a new
collaboration space with him and his team leads on-demand via a Linux terminal command. Drag and drop the code
snippets from the left onto the numbers on the right that match the missing sections in the exhibit to complete the script.
Not all code snippets are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3
A developer needs to configure an environment to orchestrate and configure. Which two tools should be used for each
task? (Choose two.)
A. Puppet for orchestration
B. Terraform for orchestration
C. Terraform for configuration
D. Ansible for orchestration
E. Ansible for configuration
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit. As part of the Ansible playbook workflow, several new interfaces are being configured using the
netconf_config module. The task references the interface variables that are unique per device.
In which directory is the YAML file with these variables found?
A. host_vars directory
B. home directory
C. group_vars directory
D. current working directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?
A. 202
B. 401
C. 429
D. 503
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
The application sometimes stores configuration as constants in the code, which is a violation of the strict separation of
configuration from code. Where should application configuration be stored?
A. environment variables
B. YAML files
C. Python libraries
D. Dockerfiles
E. INI files
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. The YAML represented is using the ios_vrf module. As part of the Ansible playbook workflow, what
is the result when this task is run?
A. VRFs not defined in the host_vars file is removed from the device.
B. VRFs not defined in the host_vars file is added to the device, and any other VRFs on the device remain.
C. VRFs defined in the host_vars file is removed from the device.
D. VRFs are added to the device from the host_vars file, and any other VRFs on the device are removed.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the
missing sections in the curl exhibit to complete the cURL request to FirePower Device Manager API to create objects.
Not all code snippets are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
Which two principles are included in the codebase tenet of the 12-factor app methodology? (Choose two.)
A. An application is always tracked in a version control system.
B. There is multiple codebases per application.
C. The codebase is the same across all deploys.
D. There can be a many-to-one correlation between codebase and application.
E. It is only possible to have one application deployment per codebase.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
An application is hosted on Google Kubernetes Engine. A new JavaScript module is created to work with the existing
application. Which task is mandatory to make the code ready to deploy?
A. Create a Dockerfile for the codebase.
B. Rewrite the code in Python.
C. Build a wrapper for the code to “containerize” it.
D. Rebase the code from the upstream git repo.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to update an SSID in Meraki using the Dashboard API. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the expressions from below onto the code to implement error handling. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
While developing an application following the 12-factor app methodology, which approach should be used in the
application for logging?
A. Write a log to a file in the application directory.
B. Write a log to a file in /var/log.
C. Write the logs buffered to stdout.
D. Write the logs unbuffered to stdout.
Correct Answer: D

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[Exam details]: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (350-801 CLCOR) – website: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clcor-350-801.html

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit

IP phone A makes a call to IP phone B and the RTP voice stream is successfully established between the endpoints. What option describes how to accomplish this call on phones with incompatible IP address versions?
A. Set common device configuration to IPv4 and IPv6
B. Set IP addressing mode preference for signalling to IPv4
C. Assign a media resource group with available MTPs
D. Enable alternative network address types
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A user dials 9011841234567 to reach Vietnam. Which steps send the call to the PSTN provider as 011841234567?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording
enabled devices?
A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS.
B. Go to the phone\\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”.
C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS.
D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled
Devices.”
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/211297-Configure-Opus-Support-on-Cisco-Unified.pdf

QUESTION 4
Due to service provider restriction, Cisco Unified Communications Manager cannot send videos in the SDP. Which two
options on Cisco Unified CM are configured to suppress video in the SDP is outgoing invites? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Send send-receive SDP in the mid-call INVITE check box on the SIP trunk SIP profile.
B. Add the audio forced command to voice service VOIP on the Unified Border Elements.
C. Check the Retry Call as Audio on the SIP trunk
D. Set Video bandwidth in the Region settings to 0.
E. Change the Video Capabilities dropdown on the endpoint to Disabled.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
A DTMF mismatch is occurring between an MGCP gateway registered FXS port and a Cisco Unified Communications
Manager SIP trunk. Which media resource can be leveraged to interwork this mismatch?
A. Conference Bridge
B. Trusted Relay Point
C. Media Termination Point
D. Annunciator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two descriptions of TFTP option 66 and 150 for Cisco IP phones are true? (Choose two.)
A. Option 150 supports multiple entries of TFTP server IP addresses, but option 66 supports only one of the TFTP server
DNS names.
B. Option 150 supports only TFTP server IP addresses, but option 66 supports only TFTP server DNS names.
C. Option 150 supports multiple entries of TFTP server IP addresses, but option 66 supports only one entry of either
TFTP server IP address or DNS name.
D. Option 66 is Cisco proprietary, but option 150 is standard-based.
E. Option 150 is Cisco proprietary, but option 66 is standard-based.
F. Option 150 and 66 are standard-based.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a VoIP dial-peer on a Cisco gateway. Which codec is used?
A. G.711ulaw
B. No codec is used (missing codec command).
C. G.711alaw
D. G.729r8
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/dialpeer/configuration/15-mt/vd-15-mt-book/vd-dp-cfg-examp.pdf

QUESTION 8
An engineer wants to manually deploy a Cisco Webex DX80 video endpoint to an end-user. Which type of provisioning
can be configured on the endpoint?
A. CUBE
B. CMS
C. CUCM
D. Edge
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/collaboration-endpoints/desktop-collaboration-experiencedx600-series/datasheet-c78-731879.html

QUESTION 9
An engineer implements QoS in the enterprise network. Which command can be used to verify the correct classification
and marking on a Cisco IOS switch?
A. show class-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
B. show policy-map interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
C. show policy-map
D. show access-lists
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_classn/configuration/xe-16/qos-classnxe-16-book/qos-classn-mrkg-ntwk-trfc-xe.html

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
According to the QoS Baseline Model, drag and drop the applications from the left onto the correct Per-Hop Behavior
values on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When a phone is registered over Mobile and Remote Access, where does it register?
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Expressway-C
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configuration-guide-1201_chapter_01011010.html

QUESTION 13
Which SNMP service must be activated manually on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager after installation?
A. Cisco CallManager SNMP
B. SNMP Master Agent
C. Connection SNMP Agent
D. Host Resources Agent
Correct Answer: A

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[Exam details]: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/scor-350-701.html

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QUESTION 1
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

QUESTION 3
In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
A. smurf
B. distributed denial of service
C. cross-site scripting
D. rootkit exploit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe
must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. SNMP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
A. Nexus
B. Stealthwatch
C. Firepower
D. Tetration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/security/secure-data-center-solution/index.html#~products

QUESTION 6
Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are
likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
A. group policy
B. access control policy
C. device management policy
D. platform service policy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/622/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev622/platform_settings_policies_for_managed_devices.pdf

QUESTION 7
Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
(Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. inline normalization
C. SSL
D. packet decoder
E. modbus
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)
A. exchange
B. pull messaging
C. binding
D. correlation
E. mitigating
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switch-commandreference/802_1x_commands.html

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[Exam details]: Implementing Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (350-601 DCCOR) https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dccor-350-601.html

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QUESTION 1
Which mroute state is created when Bidirectional PIM is deployed at a site?
A. *.G
B. MVPN Type-6
C. MVPN Type-7
D. S.G
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Where is the witness deployed in a two-node Cisco HyperFlex Edge deployment?
A. to the HyperFlex Edge two-node cluster
B. to Cisco Intersight
C. to a third-party cloud provider
D. to an additional server with network access to HyperFlex Edge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which virtual MAC address is the default for HSRP version 2 group 10?
A. 0000.5E00.0110
B. 0000.0C9F.F00A
C. 3716.1350.1C0A
D. 0000.0C9F.F010
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of this series of commands?
A. It reboots the server immediately.
B. It activates the firmware on the next adapter boot.
C. It updates the firmware on adapter 1/1/1 immediately.
D. It verifies the firmware update on the server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A Cisco MDS 9000 Series Storage Switch has reloaded unexpectedly.
Where does the engineer look for the latest core dump file?
A. /mnt/recovery
B. /mnt/core
C. /mnt/logs
D. /mnt/pss
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

In a bidirectional PIM network using Phantom RP as an RP redundancy mechanism, two Cisco NX-OS routers have
these requirements:
R1 must be the active RP.
R2 must be the backup RP that is used only if R1 is not reachable
Drag and drop the configuration steps to complete the configuration for Router 2. Not all configuration steps are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
Which configuration generates a Syslog message when CPU utilization is higher than 60%?
A. event manager applet HIGH-CPU event SNMP oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op gt 60 pollinterval 5 action 1.0 Syslog priority notifications msg “CPU high”
B. event manager applet HIGH-CPU event SNMP oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type exact entry-op lt 60 pollinterval 5 action 1.0 Syslog priority notifications msg “CPU high”
C. event manager applet HIGH-CPU event SNMP oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type next entry-op gt 60 pollinterval 5 action 1.0 Syslog priority notifications msg “CPU high”
D. event manager applet HIGH-CPU event SNMP oid 1.3.6.1.4.1.9.9.109.1.1.1.1.6.1 get-type next entry-op lt 60 pollinterval 5 action 1.0 Syslog priority notifications msg “CPU high”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer is seeking the most optimal on-demand CPU performance while configuring the BIOS settings of a UCS Cseries rack mount server.
What setting will accomplish this goal?
A. C6 Retention
B. C6 non-Retention
C. C2 state
D. C0/C1 state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An engineer is asked to use SaaS to manage Cisco computing.
Which two items are needed to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
A. Intersight
B. UCS Central
C. Device/Claim ID
D. Node name/Serial Number
E. UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Which VLANs are capable to be assigned on vPC interfaces?
A. 100-103
B. 100-104
C. 100-102
D. 100-105
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
An engineer must ensure fabric redundancy when implementing NPV mode on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. Which action enables fabric redundancy?
A. Use TE ports to connect to upstream switches.
B. Add a port channel to upstream switches.
C. Configure the NPV devices to use an external FLOGI database.
D. Connect the NPV devices to multiple upstream switches.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/int/nxos/cli_interfaces/pc.html

QUESTION 12
An engineer is asked to manage a large-scale data center and collect information from multiple Cisco NX-OS devices
using the Cisco NX-OS Data Management Engine model. Which technology should be used to accomplish this goal?
A. NETCONF
B. NX Yang
C. NX-API REST
D. JSON-RPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An engineer is asked to modify an overridden policy by changing the number of FCNS database entries to 1500 and
then generate a message.
What Configuration will accomplish this task?
A. event manager applet fcns_policy event fcns entries max-per-switch 1500 action 1.0 Syslog priority warnings msg
FCNS DB entries have reached the EEM limit action 2.0 policy-default
B. event manager applet fcns_policy override __fcns_entries_max_per_switch action 1.0 syslog priority errors “CNS DB
entries have reached the EEM limit” action 2.0 policy-default
C. event manager applet fcns_policy override __fcns_entries_max_per_switch event fcns entries max-per-switch 1500
action 1.0 syslog priority warnings msg FCNS DB entries have reached the EEM limit
D. event manager applet fcns_policy action 1.0 Syslog priority warnings msg FCNS DB entries have reached the EEM
limit action 2.0 event-default
Correct Answer: C

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[Exam details]: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (350-501 SPCOR): https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spcor-350-501.html

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. This configuration is being applied on an IOS XR route.
Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. It is used to create a sensor-group and has a list of YANG models for streaming.
B. It is used to create a subscription to specify the streaming interval.
C. It is used to identify MIB entries and has a list of YANG models.
D. It is used to identify traps for SNMP polling.
Correct Answer: A
Reference; https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/ncs6000/software/telemetry/b-telemetry-cg-ncs6000-62x/btelemetry-cg-ncs6000-62x_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. This configuration is being applied on an IOS XR router. Which statement about this configuration is
true?
A. It is used to enable gRPC.
B. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 600-second interval.
C. It is used to set up the configuration to poll network data.
D. It is used to create a streaming subscription with a 60-Second interval.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/telemetry/b-telemetry-cg-asr9000-62x/btelemetry-config-guide-asr9000_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 3
Egress PE NAT is being used via a single centralized router to provide Internet access to L3VPN customers. Which
description of the NAT operation is true?
A. The NAT table contains a field to identify the inside VRF of a translation.
B. Multiple address pools are needed for the same L3VPN because each site has a separate NAT.
C. The different L3VPNs using the Internet access must not have IP overlaps internally.
D. Users in different VRFs cannot share the same outside global IP address.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/network-address-translation-nat/112084-ios-nat-mplsvpn-00.html

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5
How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service
provider?
A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table.
B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet.
C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF.
D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/tap/3109924

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Router 2 connects OSPF area 1 and area 0. Router 2 receives LSA type 1 from Router 1 in area 1. How many types 3
LSAs will be generated by Router 2 into area 0 to advertise all prefixes that are announced by the Router 1 LSA type 1
packet?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two uses of the YANG data modeling language are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to model the configuration used by NETCONF operations.
B. It can be used to access a device by HTTP.
C. It can be used to replace the OSI model for troubleshooting.
D. It can be used to shape state data of network elements.
E. It can be used to replace RESTCONF as a mechanism to install and manipulate configuration.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/1611/b_1611_programmability_cg/configuring_yang_datamodel.pdf

QUESTION 8
You are creating new Cisco MPLS TE tunnels. Which type of RSVP message does the headend router send to reserve
bandwidth on the path to the tailend router?
A. path
B. tear
C. error
D. reservation
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://packetpushers.net/rsvp-te-protocol-deep-dive/

QUESTION 9
What is the difference between SNMP and model-driven telemetry?
A. SNMP uses the YANG data modeling language.
B. Telemetry uses traps and inform messages to deliver data to a network administrator on a polling basis.
C. Telemetry allows for modeled network data to be pushed to the network administrator on an as-needed basis.
D. SNMP pushes network data to the network administrator whenever it is queried.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which task must be performed first to implement BFD in an IS-IS environment?
A. Configure BFD in an interface configuration mode.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding on all interfaces running routing protocols other than IS-IS.
C. Configure all IS-IS routers as Level 2 devices.
D. Configure BFD under the IS-IS process.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fs_bfd.html#wp1131797

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show command output, which result is true after the BGP session is established?
A. The IOS XR router advertises and accepts all routes to and from eBGP neighbor 192.168.2.2.
B. The IOS XR router advertises all routes to the neighbor 192.168.2.2, but it does not accept any routes from
192.168.2.2.
C. No routes are accepted from the neighbor 192.168.2.2, nor are any routes advertised to it.
D. The IOS XR router does not advertise any routes to the neighbor 192.168.2.2, but it accepts any routes from
192.168.2.2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which purpose of implementing NSF with this configuration is true?
A. The router uses NSF to handle RP switchover while allowing neighbor relationships to remain up.
B. The router uses NSF to reduce neighbor-relationship downtime during RP switchover.
C. The router uses NSF to load balance traffic on a routed EtherChannel.
D. The router uses NSF to load balance traffic between two links, with the primary link alternating every 90 seconds.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which mechanism protects the control and management planes of a cisco IOS device to maintain routing stability,
network reachability, and packet delivery?
A. RTBH
B. BGP Flow Spec
C. MQC CLI
D. CPPr
E. NetFlow
Correct Answer: D

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The latest updated Cisco 350-401 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Practice Test is free to share from Lead4Pass (Q1-Q13)

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two)
A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
C. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination
E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
Correct Answer: DE
Cisco IOS software basically supports two modes of CEF load balancing: On per-destination or perpacket basis. For per
destination load balancing a hash is computed out of the source and destination IP address (-> Answer \\’It combines
the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination\\’ is correct). This hash points to exactly
one of the adjacency entries in the adjacency table (-> Answer \\’Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the
adjacency table\\’ is correct), providing that the same path is used for all packets with this source/destination address
pair. If per packet load balancing is used the packets are distributed round robin over the available paths. In either case
the information in the FIB and adjacency tables provide all the necessary forwarding information, just like for non-load
balancing operation. The number of paths used is limited by the number of entries the routing protocol puts in the
routing table, the default in IOS is 4 entries for most IP routing protocols with the exception of BGP, where it is one
entry. The maximum number that can be configured is 6 different paths -> Answer \\’ Cisco Express Forwarding can loadbalance over a maximum of two destinations\\’ is not correct. Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186a00800afeb7.html

QUESTION 2
Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting, a network engineer
finds that after the user is disconnected, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The
engineer also notices these message logs:
AP \\’AP2\\’ is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:54:04 PM AP \\’AP4\\’ is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:44:49
PM AP \\’AP7\\’ is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:34:32 PM
Which action reduces the user impact?
A. increase the AP heartbeat timeout
B. increase BandSelect
C. enable coverage hole detection
D. increase the dynamic channel assignment interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the description from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. TCP window size
B. TCP MSS
C. IP MTU
D. DF bit clear
E. MTU ignore
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/generic-routing-encapsulation-gre/25885-pmtud-ipfrag.html

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20?
A. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
D. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which HHTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API
session?
A. HTTP Status Code 200
B. HTTP Status Code 302
C. HTTP Status Code 401
D. HTTP Status Code: 504
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the difference between CEF and process switching?
A. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.
B. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.
C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each
packet.
D. Process switching is faster than CEF.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A client with IP address 209 16b 201 2b must access a web server on port 80 at 209 I6b.200.22b. To allow this traffic.
an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting
to
the webserver.
Which statement allows this traffic?
A. permit TCP host 209 165 200 225 eq 80 host 209.165.201.25
B. permit TCP host 209 165.201 25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80
C. permit TCP host 209.165.200 225 It 80 host 209.165.201.25
D. permit TCP host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data
centers?
A. uses flexible NetFlow
B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
C. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
D. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/identity-servicesengine/at_a_glance_c45-726831.pdf

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures CoPP and enters the show command to verify the implementation. What is
the result of the configuration?
A. All traffic will be policed based on access-list 120.
B. If traffic exceeds the specified rate, it will be transmitted and remarked.
C. Class-default traffic will be dropped.
D. ICMP will be denied based on this configuration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing
before they are sent to the FIB
Correct Answer: A
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding
information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing
table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on
the information in the IP routing table. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output
confirm?
A. SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch
B. SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.
C. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.
D. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring
Correct Answer: D

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